DAY – 23 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2024: Topic – POLITY, Subject-wise Test 8,9 Textbook-based Test 12 and Oct & Nov 2023 CA

Answer: c

Explanation:

• Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of the nature of relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government.
• Unlike the parliamentary system of the Indian Constitution, the American Constitution provides for the presidential form of government.
• In India, the President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive). Presence of dual executive in the Indian parliamentary system. Whereas, the American President is both the head of the State and the head of government i.e. Single executive. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The parliamentary system does not provide a stable government. There is no guarantee that a government can survive its tenure. Whereas the presidential system provides a stable government as the President is elected by an electoral college for a fixed tenure of four years. He cannot be removed by the Congress except by impeachment for a grave unconstitutional act. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The parliamentary system does not strictly adhere to the doctrine of separation of powers like the presidential system. In a parliamentary system, there is a fusion of powers between the legislative and executive branches. The executive (Prime Minister and Cabinet) is drawn from the legislature (Parliament) and is accountable to it. Therefore, the strict separation of powers, as seen in presidential systems, is not a characteristic of parliamentary systems. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Secularism indeed aims to uphold the principle of religious freedom, allowing individuals the autonomy to practice any religion of their choice or to not adhere to any religion at all. It promotes tolerance, pluralism, and respect for diverse religious beliefs within a society.
• Secularism, is a liberal principle that aims to protect the freedom of persons to believe in any religion or to not believe at all. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A secular state is not one that suppresses religion, but one that defines and structures itself independently of it, thereby granting freedom of belief to citizens. Freedom of belief naturally includes the freedom not to believe.
• A secular state is liberal, it does not interfere with the belief held by its citizens individually or collectively. Secularism is a project of freedom and equality for citizens, and aims to ensure it by rendering the state neutral in this realm.
• A secular state is one that separates itself from religious institutions and activities, ensuring that religious beliefs do not influence governmental decisions or policies. Instead, it functions independently of any particular religion, thereby promoting neutrality and impartiality in governance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• While both statements are correct, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. They both address different aspects of secularism. Statement-I focuses on the protection of freedom of belief, while Statement-II discusses the nature of a secular state.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Constitutional rights indeed encompass a broader range of rights beyond those considered fundamental. Constitutional rights include various rights and provisions that are outlined in a constitution, which may cover civil liberties, political rights, economic rights, social rights etc. Fundamental rights are a subset of constitutional rights and represent a specific category of rights that are considered essential for the protection and well-being of individuals. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• All fundamental rights are indeed constitutional rights because they are explicitly guaranteed by a constitution. However, not all constitutional rights may be considered fundamental. Constitutional rights may include a wide range of provisions beyond those specifically designated as fundamental rights. Therefore, while all fundamental rights are constitutional, the reverse is not necessarily true. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. While Statement-II complements Statement-I, it does not directly explain or elaborate on the broader range of rights encompassed by constitutional rights, as discussed in Statement-I.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Aristocracy refers to a form of government where power is vested in a hereditary ruling class or nobility, often based on wealth, birthright, or social status. In an aristocratic system, a small group of privileged individuals holds significant influence and control over governance and decision-making processes.
• The term “aristocracy” comes from the Greek words “aristos,” meaning “best,” and “kratos,” meaning “rule” or “power.”
• In its literal sense, aristocracy means “rule by the best” or “government by the elite.” It implies that those who are considered the best, often due to their birthright, social status, or wealth, have the authority to govern.
• Aristocracies typically prioritize the interests and privileges of the ruling elite, leading to inequalities and limited political participation for the rest of the population.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• The fundamental rights in India can be classified into 2 categories.
• Fundamental rights available only to the citizens of India and not to the foreigners,
• Fundamental rights available to both Indian citizens and foreigners.
• Fundamental Rights Available Only to Citizens of India:
• Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
• Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• Article 19 – Protection of six rights related to freedom – (a) of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and (f) to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
• Article 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
• Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
• The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28 are available to all persons whether citizens or foreigners.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law.
• This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons.
• Article 23 provides for an exception to this provision. It permits the State to impose compulsory service for public purposes, for example, military service or social service, for which it is not bound to pay. However, in imposing such service, the State is not permitted to make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class.
• State government teachers are also engaged in non-teaching activities during the elections or Census data collection. Hence, it is not a brazen violation of Article 23.
• Article 23 prohibits begar and other ‘similar forms of forced labour’ like ‘bonded labour’. The term ‘forced labour’ means compelling a person to work against his will. The word ‘force’ includes not only physical or legal force but also force arising from the compulsion of economic circumstances that is, working for less than the minimum wage. As this right is available to both citizens and non- citizens, the case in option (b) is a violation of Article 23.
• Denial of employment to an eligible candidate is a violation of Article 16. It violates the Right to Equality in public employment. It is not dealt by Article 23.
• An increase in the Dearness Allowance (DA) of Central Government employees and many state government employees was put on hold due to COVID 19. This does not violate Article 23.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• The freedom guaranteed by Article 301 is a freedom from all restrictions, except those which are provided for in the other provisions (Articles 302 to 305) of Part XIII of the Constitution itself.
• Article 302 deals with the power of Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse. Parliament may by law impose such restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse between one State and another or within any part of the territory of India as may be required in the public interest. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Article 303 deals with the restrictions on the legislative powers of the Union and of the States with regard to trade and commerce. Neither Parliament nor the Legislature of a State shall have power to make any law giving, or authorising the giving of, any preference to one State over another, or making, or authorising the making of, any discrimination between one State and another, by virtue of any entry relating to trade and commerce in any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
• Nothing in clause (1) shall prevent Parliament from making any law giving, or authorising the giving of, any preference or making, or authorising the making of, any discrimination if it is declared by such law that it is necessary to do so for the purpose of dealing with a situation arising from scarcity of goods in any part of the territory of India.
• In normal circumstances, Parliament cannot discriminate between the states or give preference to one state over the other except in the case of scarcity of goods in any part of India. But during scarcity, parliament can discriminate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Hence, option (c) is correct. Answer: c

  Explanation:

  • The freedom guaranteed by Article 301 is a freedom from all restrictions, except those which are provided for in the other provisions (Articles 302 to 305) of Part XIII of the Constitution itself.
  • Article 302 deals with the power of Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse. Parliament may by law impose such restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse between one State and another or within any part of the territory of India as may be required in the public interest. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Article 303 deals with the restrictions on the legislative powers of the Union and of the States with regard to trade and commerce. Neither Parliament nor the Legislature of a State shall have power to make any law giving, or authorising the giving of, any preference to one State over another, or making, or authorising the making of, any discrimination between one State and another, by virtue of any entry relating to trade and commerce in any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
  • Nothing in clause (1) shall prevent Parliament from making any law giving, or authorising the giving of, any preference or making, or authorising the making of, any discrimination if it is declared by such law that it is necessary to do so for the purpose of dealing with a situation arising from scarcity of goods in any part of the territory of India.
  • In normal circumstances, Parliament cannot discriminate between the states or give preference to one state over the other except in the case of scarcity of goods in any part of India. But during scarcity, parliament can discriminate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

Following categories of foreign nationals are eligible for registration as Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholder:

• Who was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after the commencement of, the Constitution i.e. 26.01.1950;
• who was eligible to become a citizen of India on 26.01.1950; or
• who belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15.08.1947; or
• who is a child or a grandchild or a great-grandchild of such a citizen; or
• who is a minor child of such persons mentioned above; or
• who is a minor child and whose both parents are citizens of India or one of the parents is a citizen of India; or
• Spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder registered under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the application.

• Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Following benefits will be allowed to an OCI: (a) Multi-purpose, multiple entry, and lifelong visa for visiting India. (b) Exemption from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• OCI is not to be misconstrued as ‘dual citizenship’. OCI does not confer political rights. The registered Overseas Citizens of India shall not be entitled to the rights which are conferred only to citizens of India, such as the right under article 16 of the Constitution with regard to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: d

Explanation:

• 6th SCHEDULE: Tribal Areas – Art 244 (2): It deals with the administration of Tribal Areas in 4 North-eastern States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (AMTM). Manipur is included in 5^th Hence, Assertion (A) is incorrect.
• Tribes in AMTM have not assimilated much with the majority and still have their roots in their own culture, customs etc. The tribal areas of AMTM are considered as Autonomous Districts: But they do not fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned. Hence, Reason (R) is correct.
• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Manipur was a British protectorate state from around 1824 to 1891. Manipur was a princely state under the British Indian Empire from 1891 to August 1947. Following India’s Independence, Manipur, one of the 500 princely states, merged with India in
• In the year 1947 on August 15, the Maharaja of Manipur enacted the Manipur Constitution Act, 1947, establishing a democratic form of government with the Maharaja as the Executive Head and an elected legislative assembly.
• Shortly after this, on 21^st September 1949, Manipur was merged into India through a merger agreement between the Government of India and the then Maharaja of Manipur and ended the era of the independent kingdom of Manipur. Hereafter, Manipur became a part of the Indian union. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Manipur was made a Union Territory in 1956 and a fully-fledged state in 1972 by the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Answer: d

Explanation:

• Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution”. Article 368 of Part XX of Constitution of India provides for two types of amendments.
• By a special majority of Parliament
• By a special majority of the Parliament with the ratification by half of the total states.
• A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
• Establishment of new states.
• Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states. Also includes Union Territories.
• Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
• Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
• Quorum in Parliament.
• Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
• Rules of procedure in Parliament.
• Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
• Use of English language in Parliament.
• Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
• Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
• Use of official language.
• Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
• Delimitation of constituencies.
• Union territories.
• Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
• Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas
• Hence, option (d) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• A democratic polity can be classified into two categories– monarchy and republic. In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession, e.g., Britain.
• In a republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period, e.g., USA.Therefore, the term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years.
• A republic also means two more things:
• One, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
• Hence, statement 2 and statement 3 are correct.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: b)

Learning: Pichwai art originated in Nathdwara, near Udaipur, and is traditionally created on cloth, typically khadi.

The paintings use stone pigments for gold and silver tones and vegetable dyes for vibrant colours like orange, red, chrome yellow, and kesari.

The detailed work is meticulous and time-consuming, taking several months to complete a single piece. The art form has evolved over time, with modern themes and influences incorporated by artists.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: C

Justification: Kozhikode, a city in Kerala, and Gwalior, a city in Madhya Pradesh, have been included in UNESCO’s Creative Cities Network (UCCN).

These cities were chosen to represent specific creative fields, with Kozhikode falling under the category of literature and Gwalior under music.

Indian cities that are part of this network include Varanasi (music), Srinagar (crafts and folk arts), Hyderabad (Gastronomy), Jaipur (Crafts and Folk Arts) and Chennai (music).

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/12/CA-30-NOV-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Solution: d)

Justification: Shadow puppetry is a traditional form of puppetry where puppets made of translucent material, often leather, are used to create shadows on a screen. Here the focus is on the shadows cast on the screen, and the puppets are typically made of thin, semi-transparent material like leather or parchment. Leather puppetry, on the other hand, involves the use of more substantial, often opaque, puppets made from materials like goat skin.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CA-30-OCT-2023-MONTHLY.pdf

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, whether for military or peaceful purposes.

Statement 2 is not correct: Although it was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1996, it’s still in the ratification stage — 18 countries are yet to ratify (the process by which a state indicates its consent to be bound to a treaty).

Since the CTBT, 10 nuclear tests have taken place. India conducted two in 1998, Pakistan also two in 1998, and North Korea conducted tests in 2006, 2009, 2013, 2016 (twice) and 2017.

Statement 3 is not correct: Notably, for the treaty to enter into force, it must be signed and ratified by 44 specific nuclear technology holder countries, eight of which have yet to ratify the agreement: China, Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, North Korea, Pakistan and the United States, according to the UN.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Provident funds, by their very nature, need to invest in risk free securities that also provide them a reasonable return.

Statement 1 is not correct: Government securities, also called the gilt-edged securities or G-secs, are not only free from default risk but also provide reasonable returns and, therefore, offer the most suitable investment opportunity to provident funds.

The Government securities comprise dated securities issued by the Government of India and state governments as also, treasury bills.

As an agent of the Government, the Reserve Bank of India manages and services these securities through its public debt offices located in various places.

Statement 2 is correct: Treasury bills (T-bills) offer short-term investment opportunities, generally up to one year. They are thus useful in managing short-term liquidity.

At present, the Government of India issues four types of treasury bills, namely, 14-day, 91-day, 182-day and 364-day.

Statement 3 is correct: Apart from purchasing government securities from the Reserve Bank of India through its auctions/sales, all types of government paper can be purchased from the secondary market.

Accredited Primary Dealers and Satellite Dealers also purchase and sell securities. Even the Reserve Bank of India sells government securities through its open market operations window.

Answer: A

Explanation:

DNA, short for deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in organisms that contains the biological instructions for building and maintaining them.

Unique sequences of base pairs, particularly repeating patterns, provide a means to identify species, populations, and even individuals.

Statement 1 is not correct: Environmental DNA (eDNA) is nuclear or mitochondrial DNA that is released from an organism into the environment.

Statement 2 is not correct: Sources of eDNA include secreted feces, mucous, and gametes; shed skin and hair; and carcasses. eDNA can be detected in cellular or extracellular (dissolved DNA) form.

Statement 3 is correct: In aquatic environments, eDNA is diluted and distributed by currents and other hydrological processes but it only lasts about 7–21 days, depending on environmental conditions.

Exposure to UVB radiation, acidity, heat, and endo and exonucleases can degrade eDNA. eDNA may also be an effective tool for early detection of aquatic invasive species.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Formaldehyde is a colourless, flammable gas at room temperature and has a strong odour. Exposure to formaldehyde may cause adverse health effects.

Formaldehyde is found in:

• Resins used in the manufacture of composite wood products (i.e., hardwood plywood, particleboard and medium-density fiberboard);
• Building materials and insulation;
• Household products such as glues, permanent press fabrics, paints and coatings, lacquers and finishes, and paper products;
• Preservatives used in some medicines, cosmetics and other consumer products such as dishwashing liquids and fabric softeners; and
• Fertilizers and pesticides.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct: The Galapagos Islands area situated in the Pacific Ocean some 1,000 km from the Ecuadorian coast. This archipelago and its immense marine reserve is known as the unique ‘living museum and showcase of evolution’.

Statement 1 is correct: Its geographical location at the confluence of three ocean currents makes it one of the richest marine ecosystems in the world. Ongoing seismic and volcanic activity reflects the processes that formed the islands.

In comparison with most oceanic archipelagos, the Galapagos are very young with the largest and youngest islands, Isabela and Fernandina, with less than one million years of existence, and the oldest islands, Española and San Cristóbal, somewhere between three to five million years.

Statement 3 is not correct: The site demonstrates the evolution of the younger volcanic areas in the west and the older islands in the east.

Correct Answer : A) 11

 Answer Justification :

Justification:

Let the number of students be ‘x’.

The initial weight of the class = 40x kgs

The final average weight of the class = 40 + 1 = 41kgs

The final weight of the class = 41 (x+1) kgs

But, Final weight – Initial weight = weight of new student

41 (x+1) – 40x = 52

41x + 41 – 40x = 52

x + 41 = 52

x = 52 – 41 = 11.

Thus, the initial number of students = 11.

Answer D) 8

Let the original average of the five numbers = x

Each number is multiplied by 2, so average = 2x

And then 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15 is added to the total sum

So, the new average = 2x + 15/5 = 2x + 3

(2x + 3)/x = 225/100 = 9/4

x = 12

So, the original numbers are 8, 10, 12, 14, 16

Required difference = 16 – 8 = 8

Hence, option D is correct.

Answer B) 40.56 kgs

This question gives us a sense of how averages change when entities are added to or taken away from the system. One needs to learn how the system behaves without having to go through the onerous algebraic route.

If the overall average weight has to increase after the new people are added, the average weight of the new entrants has to be higher than 40.

So, n > 40

Consequently, m has to be < 10 (as n + m = 50)

Working with the “differences approach, we know that the total additional weight added by “m students would be (n – 40) each, above the already existing average of 40. m(n – 40) is the total extra additional weight added, which is shared amongst 40 + m students.

So, m * (n−40)/(m+40)

has to be maximum for the overall average to be maximum.

At this point, use the trial and error approach (or else, go with the answer options) to arrive at the answer.

The maximum average occurs when m = 5, and n = 45

And the average is 40 + (45 – 40) * 5/45 = 40 + 5/9 = 40.56 kgs

Hence, the answer is “40.56 kgs”.

Choice B is the correct answer.

Answer: A

The passage proves how cotton production in India declined by British, thus it can be implied that India undergone deindustrialization and British got industrialised through colonial structures.

Since national freedom is not focused in the passage it is absurd. So, 2 is wrong and answer is A.

Answer: A

We can’t assume about prices from this passage at any cost, so 2 is wrong.

Since urban centres saw success of the movement from beginning middle class cooperation can be assumed. So, 1 is correct.

Thus, A is answer.