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Puucho CURRENT Affairs RTM – 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding privilege motion:
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- It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
- Any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence.
- The Speaker is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and
- immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament.
- A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege.
- A member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The rules however mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence and should need the intervention of the House.
- The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/privilege-motion-against-cbi-ed-in-wb/
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and
- immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament.
- A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege.
- A member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The rules however mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence and should need the intervention of the House.
- The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/privilege-motion-against-cbi-ed-in-wb/
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Question 2 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding privilege motion:
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- A member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof.
- The Speaker/Chairperson is the only deciding authority on the privilege motion.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation: here the directive word is incorrect!!
- Rule No 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and correspondingly Rule 187 in Chapter 16 of the Rajya Sabha rulebook governs privilege. It says that a member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The rules however mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence and should need the intervention of the House.
- What is the role of the Speaker/Rajya Sabha Chair?
- The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. If the Speaker/Chair gives consent under Rule 222, the member concerned is given an opportunity to make a short statement.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/privilege-motion-against-cbi-ed-in-wb/
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation: here the directive word is incorrect!!
- Rule No 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and correspondingly Rule 187 in Chapter 16 of the Rajya Sabha rulebook governs privilege. It says that a member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or of a committee thereof. The rules however mandate that any notice should be relating to an incident of recent occurrence and should need the intervention of the House.
- What is the role of the Speaker/Rajya Sabha Chair?
- The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. If the Speaker/Chair gives consent under Rule 222, the member concerned is given an opportunity to make a short statement.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/privilege-motion-against-cbi-ed-in-wb/
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Question 3 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements:
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- In India, defamation can both be a civil wrong and a criminal offence.
- Criminal defamation has been specifically defined as an offence under section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- Defamation is the communication of a false statement that harms the reputation of an individual person, business, product, group, government, religion, or nation.
- In India, defamation can both be a civil wrong and a criminal offence.The difference between the two lies in the objects they seek to achieve.
- A civil wrongtends to provide for a redressal of wrongs by awarding compensation and a criminal law seeks to punish a wrongdoer and send a message to others not to commit such acts.
- Legal provisions:
- Criminal defamationhas been specifically defined as an offence under section 499 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
- Civil defamationis based on tort law (an area of law which does not rely on statutes to define wrongs but takes from an ever-increasing body of case laws to define what would constitute a wrong).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/rahul-moves-hc-to-quash-defamation-case/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- Defamation is the communication of a false statement that harms the reputation of an individual person, business, product, group, government, religion, or nation.
- In India, defamation can both be a civil wrong and a criminal offence.The difference between the two lies in the objects they seek to achieve.
- A civil wrongtends to provide for a redressal of wrongs by awarding compensation and a criminal law seeks to punish a wrongdoer and send a message to others not to commit such acts.
- Legal provisions:
- Criminal defamationhas been specifically defined as an offence under section 499 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
- Civil defamationis based on tort law (an area of law which does not rely on statutes to define wrongs but takes from an ever-increasing body of case laws to define what would constitute a wrong).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/rahul-moves-hc-to-quash-defamation-case/
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Question 4 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements:
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- The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations is an international treaty that defines consular relations between independent states.
- India has neither signed nor ratified the Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations is an international treaty that defines consular relations between independent states.
- Article 36 of the Vienna Convention states that foreign nationals who are arrested or detained in the host country must be given notice without delay of their right to have their embassy or consulate notified of that arrest.
- If the detained foreign national so requests, the police must fax that notice to the embassy or consulate, which can then verify the detained person.
- India has ratified the convention.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/new-pak-law-allows-jadhav-to-file-appeal/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations is an international treaty that defines consular relations between independent states.
- Article 36 of the Vienna Convention states that foreign nationals who are arrested or detained in the host country must be given notice without delay of their right to have their embassy or consulate notified of that arrest.
- If the detained foreign national so requests, the police must fax that notice to the embassy or consulate, which can then verify the detained person.
- India has ratified the convention.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/new-pak-law-allows-jadhav-to-file-appeal/
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Question 5 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding International Criminal Court (ICC).
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- International Criminal Court (ICC) is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal courtestablished to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
- The ICC has universal territorial jurisdiction to investigate and prosecute crimes of international concern.
- India and U.S. are the members of the court.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is the court of last resortfor prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
- It is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal courtestablished to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
- Its founding treaty, the Rome Statute, entered into force on July 1, 2002.
- Funding:Although the Court’s expenses are funded primarily by States Parties, it also receives voluntary contributions from governments, international organisations, individuals, corporations and other entities.
- Composition and voting power:
- The Court’s management oversight and legislative body, the Assembly of States Parties, consists of one representative from each state party.
- Each state party has one vote and “every effort” has to be made to reach decisions by consensus. If consensus cannot be reached, decisions are made by vote.
- The Assembly is presided over by a president and two vice-presidents, who are elected by the members to three-year terms.
- The ICC lacks universal territorial jurisdiction, and may only investigate and prosecute crimes committed within member states, crimes committed by nationals of member states, or crimes in situations referred to the Court by the United Nations Security Council.
- The U.S. government has never been a member of the court.
- Some countries have neither signed nor acceded to the Rome Statute. Some of them, including China and India, are critical of the Court.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/new-pak-law-allows-jadhav-to-file-appeal/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is the court of last resortfor prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
- It is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal courtestablished to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
- Its founding treaty, the Rome Statute, entered into force on July 1, 2002.
- Funding:Although the Court’s expenses are funded primarily by States Parties, it also receives voluntary contributions from governments, international organisations, individuals, corporations and other entities.
- Composition and voting power:
- The Court’s management oversight and legislative body, the Assembly of States Parties, consists of one representative from each state party.
- Each state party has one vote and “every effort” has to be made to reach decisions by consensus. If consensus cannot be reached, decisions are made by vote.
- The Assembly is presided over by a president and two vice-presidents, who are elected by the members to three-year terms.
- The ICC lacks universal territorial jurisdiction, and may only investigate and prosecute crimes committed within member states, crimes committed by nationals of member states, or crimes in situations referred to the Court by the United Nations Security Council.
- The U.S. government has never been a member of the court.
- Some countries have neither signed nor acceded to the Rome Statute. Some of them, including China and India, are critical of the Court.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/new-pak-law-allows-jadhav-to-file-appeal/
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Question 6 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements:
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- Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) was established in 2002.
- The Information Technology Act, 2000 gave statutory status to the USOF.
- The USOF is headed by the USOF Administrator who reports to the Secretary, Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Universal Service Obligation Fund was established in 2002, with the main aim to provide universal telecom services and ensure that even the unconnected areas in the country reap the benefits of inclusive development.
- The Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act, 2003 gave statutory status to the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF).
- The USOF is headed by the USOF Administrator who reports to the Secretary, Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/cabinet-nod-for-mobile-services-in-7287-villages/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Universal Service Obligation Fund was established in 2002, with the main aim to provide universal telecom services and ensure that even the unconnected areas in the country reap the benefits of inclusive development.
- The Indian Telegraph (Amendment) Act, 2003 gave statutory status to the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF).
- The USOF is headed by the USOF Administrator who reports to the Secretary, Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/cabinet-nod-for-mobile-services-in-7287-villages/
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Question 7 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY):
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- It was launched by the Govt. of India to provide connectivity to unconnected Habitations as part of a poverty reduction strategy.
- The Union Government bears 90% of the project cost in respect of projects sanctioned under the scheme in all states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY):
- Launched on: 25th December, 2000.
- Objective: To provide connectivity, by way of an all-weather road to unconnected habitations.
- Eligibility: Unconnected habitations of designated population size (500+ in plain areas and 250+ in North-Eastern States, Himalayan States, Deserts and Tribal Areas as per 2001 census) in the core network for uplifting the socio-economic condition of the rural population.
- Funding: The Union Government bears 90% of the project cost in respect of projects sanctioned under the scheme in North-Eastern and Himalayan States, whereas for other states the Union Government bears 60% of the cost.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/pradhan-mantri-gram-sadak-yojana-pmgsy/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY):
- Launched on: 25th December, 2000.
- Objective: To provide connectivity, by way of an all-weather road to unconnected habitations.
- Eligibility: Unconnected habitations of designated population size (500+ in plain areas and 250+ in North-Eastern States, Himalayan States, Deserts and Tribal Areas as per 2001 census) in the core network for uplifting the socio-economic condition of the rural population.
- Funding: The Union Government bears 90% of the project cost in respect of projects sanctioned under the scheme in North-Eastern and Himalayan States, whereas for other states the Union Government bears 60% of the cost.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/pradhan-mantri-gram-sadak-yojana-pmgsy/
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Question 8 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements:
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- The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory body for securities and commodity market in India.
- It works under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory body for securities and commodity market in India under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance , Government of India.
- SEBI unveils investor charter:
- Markets regulator SEBI has issued an investor charter aimed at protecting the interest of investors in the securities market.
- The vision of the investor charter is “to protect the interests of investors by enabling them to understand the risks involved and invest in a fair, transparent, secure market, and to get services in a timely and efficient manner.”
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-november-2021/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory body for securities and commodity market in India under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance , Government of India.
- SEBI unveils investor charter:
- Markets regulator SEBI has issued an investor charter aimed at protecting the interest of investors in the securities market.
- The vision of the investor charter is “to protect the interests of investors by enabling them to understand the risks involved and invest in a fair, transparent, secure market, and to get services in a timely and efficient manner.”
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2021/11/18/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-18-november-2021/
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Question 9 of 10
1 points
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
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- A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
- They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: While FDs can be enforced by legislative processes (for e.g. Environment Protection Act that helps enforce the individual duty of environment protection), the constitution explicitly does not enforce them via legal provisions or does not explicitly mention in Part IVA that there are legislative processes to enforce them.
- However, since the Parliament has enforced most fundamental duties already via a legislative process, we will consider this statement 1 as correct.
- Statement 2: It is not clear what UPSC means by ‘legal duties’, but for all practical purposes it can be considered as ‘law of the land’.
- FDs are in sync with legal duties because what is illegal cannot be a fundamental duty, and what is a fundamental duty has also been made a legal duty (e.g. respecting women).
- Also, it is an Indian citizen’s fundamental duty to abide by the constitutional laws (legal duties); this brings the correlation. Statement 2 is thus correct.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2017
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: While FDs can be enforced by legislative processes (for e.g. Environment Protection Act that helps enforce the individual duty of environment protection), the constitution explicitly does not enforce them via legal provisions or does not explicitly mention in Part IVA that there are legislative processes to enforce them.
- However, since the Parliament has enforced most fundamental duties already via a legislative process, we will consider this statement 1 as correct.
- Statement 2: It is not clear what UPSC means by ‘legal duties’, but for all practical purposes it can be considered as ‘law of the land’.
- FDs are in sync with legal duties because what is illegal cannot be a fundamental duty, and what is a fundamental duty has also been made a legal duty (e.g. respecting women).
- Also, it is an Indian citizen’s fundamental duty to abide by the constitutional laws (legal duties); this brings the correlation. Statement 2 is thus correct.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2017
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Question 10 of 10
1 points
Consider the following pairs:
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- Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association
- Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
- Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
Refer: UPSC CSE 2017
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
Refer: UPSC CSE 2017
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