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Editorials Quiz 2021-22
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Introducing yet another ingenious course, InsightsIAS is excited to announce our new initiative QUED – Questions from Editorials. Considering the number of questions that appeared from Editorials in previous year UPSC Prelims Examinations, we feel it is wise for students to cover Editorials from Prelims point of view as well in order to achieve that extra edge. Although, we have covered important editorials separately in our Editorial Section as well as under Secure Initiative, MCQ practice can prove to be crucial for better performance and guaranteed result.
We strongly recommend you at add QUED along with Static Quiz ,Current Affairs Quiz and RTM for your Daily MCQ practice.
We will be posting 5 MCQs at 11am everyday from Monday to Saturday on http://www.insightsonindia.com. QUED will be available under QUIZ menu.
We hope students utilize this initiative to the best of advantage. 🙂
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Question 1 of 5
Consider the following statements.
- Hypertension or elevated blood pressure is a condition having systolic blood pressure level greater than or equal to 140 mmHg.
- According to National Family Health Survey, Southern States have a lower prevalence of hypertension than the national average.
- India Hypertension Control Initiative (IHCI) aims to eliminate the prevalence of high blood pressure by 2025.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
CorrectSolution: c)
Hypertension is defined as having systolic blood pressure level greater than or equal to 140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure level greater than or equal to 90 mmHg or/and taking anti-hypertensive medication to lower his/her blood pressure.
India has committed to a “25 by 25” goal, which aims to reduce premature mortality due to non-communicable diseases (NCDs) by 25% by 2025. One of the nine voluntary targets includes reducing the prevalence of high blood pressure by 25% by 2025.
Southern States have a higher prevalence of hypertension than the national average, according to the latest edition of the National Family Health Survey. While 21.3% of women and 24% of men aged above 15 have hypertension in the country, the prevalence is the highest in Kerala where 32.8% men and 30.9% women have been diagnosed with hypertension. Kerala is followed by Telangana where the prevalence is 31.4% in men and 26.1% in women.
IncorrectSolution: c)
Hypertension is defined as having systolic blood pressure level greater than or equal to 140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure level greater than or equal to 90 mmHg or/and taking anti-hypertensive medication to lower his/her blood pressure.
India has committed to a “25 by 25” goal, which aims to reduce premature mortality due to non-communicable diseases (NCDs) by 25% by 2025. One of the nine voluntary targets includes reducing the prevalence of high blood pressure by 25% by 2025.
Southern States have a higher prevalence of hypertension than the national average, according to the latest edition of the National Family Health Survey. While 21.3% of women and 24% of men aged above 15 have hypertension in the country, the prevalence is the highest in Kerala where 32.8% men and 30.9% women have been diagnosed with hypertension. Kerala is followed by Telangana where the prevalence is 31.4% in men and 26.1% in women.
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Question 2 of 5
B. R. Ambedkar’s social movement and political thoughts are heralded for making Indian society sensitive towards the ideas of social justice and democracy. Ambedkar was associated with which of the following political parties?
- Independent Labour Party (ILP)
- Scheduled Castes Federation (SCF)
- Republican Party of India (RPI)
Select the correct answer code:
CorrectSolution: d)
Ambedkar’s first political party, the Independent Labour Party (ILP), was committed to the welfare of the working classes.
In 1942, Ambedkar established his second political party, the Scheduled Castes Federation (SCF), in Bombay.
Ambedkar launched the Republican Party of India (RPI) in 1956. He envisaged the RPI as a secular-socialist front drawing its ideological motives from Buddhist principles and representing the poor agrarian classes and the socially marginalised castes.
IncorrectSolution: d)
Ambedkar’s first political party, the Independent Labour Party (ILP), was committed to the welfare of the working classes.
In 1942, Ambedkar established his second political party, the Scheduled Castes Federation (SCF), in Bombay.
Ambedkar launched the Republican Party of India (RPI) in 1956. He envisaged the RPI as a secular-socialist front drawing its ideological motives from Buddhist principles and representing the poor agrarian classes and the socially marginalised castes.
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Question 3 of 5
Consider the following statements regarding Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR).
- It reflects people’s preference for liquidity.
- It is calculated only with respect to the Term deposits held by the public in banks.
- It generally increases during the festive season.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: b)
The currency deposit ratio (cdr) is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposits. cdr = CU/DD. If a person gets Re 1 she will put Rs 1/(1 + cdr) in her bank account and keep Rs cdr/(1 + cdr) in cash. It reflects people’s preference for liquidity. It is a purely behavioural parameter which depends, among other things, on the seasonal pattern of expenditure. For example, cdr increases during the festive season as people convert deposits to cash balance for meeting extra expenditure during such periods.
IncorrectSolution: b)
The currency deposit ratio (cdr) is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposits. cdr = CU/DD. If a person gets Re 1 she will put Rs 1/(1 + cdr) in her bank account and keep Rs cdr/(1 + cdr) in cash. It reflects people’s preference for liquidity. It is a purely behavioural parameter which depends, among other things, on the seasonal pattern of expenditure. For example, cdr increases during the festive season as people convert deposits to cash balance for meeting extra expenditure during such periods.
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Question 4 of 5
Consider the following statements regarding ‘re-wilding’ of wild animals.
- Re-wilding means reintroduction of the cub into the wild after a certain time when it appears that the cub is capable of surviving in the wild independently.
- The guidelines for the ‘re-wilding’ of wild animals are laid down in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- In India, Endangered species and scavengers are prohibited for ‘re-wilding’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: b)
As per the Standard Operating Procedures/Guidelines laid down by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under Section 38(O) of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, there are three ways to deal with orphaned or abandoned tiger cubs.
The first is to make an effort to reunite the abandoned cubs with their mother.
Second, if a reunion of the cub with its mother is not possible, then shift the cub to a suitable zoo.
Third, reintroduction of the cub into the wild after a certain time when it appears that the cub is capable of surviving in the wild independently. This is what is known as ‘re-wilding’.
Re-wilding is not limited to cats. There have been efforts to reintroduce other endangered species, including scavengers, into the wild after rearing them in captivity.
IncorrectSolution: b)
As per the Standard Operating Procedures/Guidelines laid down by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under Section 38(O) of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, there are three ways to deal with orphaned or abandoned tiger cubs.
The first is to make an effort to reunite the abandoned cubs with their mother.
Second, if a reunion of the cub with its mother is not possible, then shift the cub to a suitable zoo.
Third, reintroduction of the cub into the wild after a certain time when it appears that the cub is capable of surviving in the wild independently. This is what is known as ‘re-wilding’.
Re-wilding is not limited to cats. There have been efforts to reintroduce other endangered species, including scavengers, into the wild after rearing them in captivity.
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Question 5 of 5
Consider the following statements regarding Stockholm Convention.
- The Stockholm Convention seeks to eliminate the production and use of intentionally produced Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
- Under the Convention, India has completely banned the use of DDT.
- A Global Environment Facility (GEF) provides assistance to the developing countries in implementation of the Convention.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: b)
The Stockholm Convention, ratified by India on 13.01.2006, is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). POPs are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms and are toxic to human beings and wildlife. POPs travel globally and can cause damage wherever they travel. The Convention that entered into force of 17th May, 2004, lays down that in its implementation, Governments will take measures to eliminate or reduce the release of POPs into the environment.
The Stockholm Convention seeks the elimination or restriction of production and use of all intentionally produced POPs (industrial chemicals and pesticides). The Convention also seeks the continuing minimization and wherever feasible, ultimate elimination of the releases of unintentionally produced POPs such as dioxins and furans. The use of DDT is restricted in India. Use of DDT is banned for agricultural purposes; it is produced in a restricted manner for use in vector control only, as India has obtained exemption for use of DDT for vector control.
A Global Environment Facility (GEF) has been set up as an interim financial mechanism, to assist the developing countries in implementation of the Convention.
IncorrectSolution: b)
The Stockholm Convention, ratified by India on 13.01.2006, is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). POPs are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms and are toxic to human beings and wildlife. POPs travel globally and can cause damage wherever they travel. The Convention that entered into force of 17th May, 2004, lays down that in its implementation, Governments will take measures to eliminate or reduce the release of POPs into the environment.
The Stockholm Convention seeks the elimination or restriction of production and use of all intentionally produced POPs (industrial chemicals and pesticides). The Convention also seeks the continuing minimization and wherever feasible, ultimate elimination of the releases of unintentionally produced POPs such as dioxins and furans. The use of DDT is restricted in India. Use of DDT is banned for agricultural purposes; it is produced in a restricted manner for use in vector control only, as India has obtained exemption for use of DDT for vector control.
A Global Environment Facility (GEF) has been set up as an interim financial mechanism, to assist the developing countries in implementation of the Convention.
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