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INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2022
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- CSAT Plan for Insta 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Know about how to follow INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
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Question 1 of 30
1 points
Consider the following about Scheduled areas under the Constitution.
- The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.
- The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: c
Learning: Statement 1: He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
Statement 2: The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein. But the governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas.
He has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas.
Q Source: Chapter on Scheduled and Tribal areas: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: c
Learning: Statement 1: He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
Statement 2: The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein. But the governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas.
He has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas.
Q Source: Chapter on Scheduled and Tribal areas: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 2 of 30
1 points
Which of the following autonomous districts lie in the state of Mizoram?
- North Cachar
- Mara
- Lai
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: c
Justification: In Assam: The North Cachar Hills District; The Karbi Anglong District; The Bodoland Territorial Areas District.
In Meghalaya: Khasi Hills District; Jaintia Hills District; The Garo Hills District.
In Tripura: Tripura Tribal Areas District
In Mizoram: The Chakma District; The Mara District; The Lai District.
Q Source: Chapter on Scheduled and Tribal areas: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: c
Justification: In Assam: The North Cachar Hills District; The Karbi Anglong District; The Bodoland Territorial Areas District.
In Meghalaya: Khasi Hills District; Jaintia Hills District; The Garo Hills District.
In Tripura: Tripura Tribal Areas District
In Mizoram: The Chakma District; The Mara District; The Lai District.
Q Source: Chapter on Scheduled and Tribal areas: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 3 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements.
- The Constitution prescribes the legal, educational, administrative or judicial qualifications of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution specifies the term of the members of the Election Commission.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a
Justification: The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws with respect to the members of the EC can be noted, viz.,
- The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Q Source: Chapter on Election Commission of India: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: a
Justification: The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission, some flaws with respect to the members of the EC can be noted, viz.,
- The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
- The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Q Source: Chapter on Election Commission of India: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 4 of 30
1 points
The Finance Commission was setup under which of the following articles of the Constitution?
CorrectSolution: b
Justification: A275(1) concerns grants-in-aid. While the FC deals with this article, it is a body set up under Article 280 of the Constitution.
Its primary job is to recommend measures and methods on how revenues need to be distributed between the Centre and states.
There are no-ex officio members of the commission as such, because it is constituted afresh every five years.
Besides suggesting the mechanism to share tax revenues, the Commission also lays down the principles for giving out grant-in-aid to states and other local bodies.
The commission has to take on itself the job of addressing the imbalances that often arise between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the states, respectively.
Q Source: Chapter on Finance Commission: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: b
Justification: A275(1) concerns grants-in-aid. While the FC deals with this article, it is a body set up under Article 280 of the Constitution.
Its primary job is to recommend measures and methods on how revenues need to be distributed between the Centre and states.
There are no-ex officio members of the commission as such, because it is constituted afresh every five years.
Besides suggesting the mechanism to share tax revenues, the Commission also lays down the principles for giving out grant-in-aid to states and other local bodies.
The commission has to take on itself the job of addressing the imbalances that often arise between the taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities of the centre and the states, respectively.
Q Source: Chapter on Finance Commission: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 5 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements.
- The chief election commissioner can only be removed on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
- Article 324 of the Constitution provides the same protection to all the election commissioners as the chief election commissioner.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a
Justification: The CEC and the Election Commissioners have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier, and enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Supreme Court judges.
The CEC and the Election Commissioners enjoy the same decision-making powers which is suggestive of the fact that their powers are at par with each other.
However, Article 324(5) does not provide similar protection to the Election Commissioners and it merely says that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
There was a petition filed on this issue in the SC to seek greater clarity on what exact the recommendation of CEC mean in this context. Is the removal process same as that of the CEC because they enjoy nearly the same powers; or is it different?
Q Source: Chapter on EC: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: a
Justification: The CEC and the Election Commissioners have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier, and enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Supreme Court judges.
The CEC and the Election Commissioners enjoy the same decision-making powers which is suggestive of the fact that their powers are at par with each other.
However, Article 324(5) does not provide similar protection to the Election Commissioners and it merely says that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
There was a petition filed on this issue in the SC to seek greater clarity on what exact the recommendation of CEC mean in this context. Is the removal process same as that of the CEC because they enjoy nearly the same powers; or is it different?
Q Source: Chapter on EC: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 6 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Coal Bed Methane (CBM)
- It is an unconventional form of natural gas found in coal deposits or coal seams.
- It can be used as feedstock for fertilizers
- It can be used for production of Methanol
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
Coal Bed Methane (CBM) is an unconventional form of natural gas found in coal deposits or coal seams. CMB is formed during the process of coalification, the transformation of plant material into coal.
It is considered a valuable energy resource with reserves and production having grown nearly every year since 1989. Varied methods of recovery make CBM a stable source of energy.
CBM can be recovered from underground coal before, during, or after mining operations. It can also be extracted from “unminable” coal seams that are relatively deep, thin or of poor or inconsistent quality. Vertical and horizontal wells are used to develop CBM resources.
Extraction requires drilling wells into the coal seams and removing water contained in the seam to reduce hydrostatic pressure and release absorbed (and free) gas out of the coal.
CBM can be used for:
- Power generation
- As compressed natural gas (CNG) auto fuel
- As feedstock for fertilizers
- Industrial uses such as in cement production
- Methanol production.
IncorrectSolution: D
Coal Bed Methane (CBM) is an unconventional form of natural gas found in coal deposits or coal seams. CMB is formed during the process of coalification, the transformation of plant material into coal.
It is considered a valuable energy resource with reserves and production having grown nearly every year since 1989. Varied methods of recovery make CBM a stable source of energy.
CBM can be recovered from underground coal before, during, or after mining operations. It can also be extracted from “unminable” coal seams that are relatively deep, thin or of poor or inconsistent quality. Vertical and horizontal wells are used to develop CBM resources.
Extraction requires drilling wells into the coal seams and removing water contained in the seam to reduce hydrostatic pressure and release absorbed (and free) gas out of the coal.
CBM can be used for:
- Power generation
- As compressed natural gas (CNG) auto fuel
- As feedstock for fertilizers
- Industrial uses such as in cement production
- Methanol production.
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Question 7 of 30
1 points
Which of the following fertilizers is/are Primary Fertilizers?
- Nitrogen
- Phosphorus
- Potassium
- Iron
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: a
Fertilizers can be classified in three categories namely- Primary, Secondary and Micronutrients
- Primary fertilizers are further classified on the type of nutrients they supply to soil such as nitrogenous (urea), phosphatic (di-ammonium phosphate (DAP)) and potassic (muriate of potash (MOP)) fertilizers.
- Secondary fertilizer includes calcium, magnesium and sulphur while
- Micronutrients include iron, zinc, boron, chloride etc.
IncorrectSolution: a
Fertilizers can be classified in three categories namely- Primary, Secondary and Micronutrients
- Primary fertilizers are further classified on the type of nutrients they supply to soil such as nitrogenous (urea), phosphatic (di-ammonium phosphate (DAP)) and potassic (muriate of potash (MOP)) fertilizers.
- Secondary fertilizer includes calcium, magnesium and sulphur while
- Micronutrients include iron, zinc, boron, chloride etc.
-
Question 8 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding negotiable warehousing receipts
- It allows transfer of ownership of that commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver the physical commodity.
- They are regulated by the NABARD.
- NWRs are issued by registered warehouses and enables farmers to seek loans from banks against NWRs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c
Government launches negotiable warehousing receipts in e-format
The government has rolled out negotiable warehousing receipts in electronic format that farmers can use to avail of bank credit easily and without fear of losing or misusing it.
Benefits of e receipts:
Till now, the receipts were issued manually. Now, it will be given in an electronic format, which will not only benefit farmers, but banks and other stakeholders.
- Farmers will not have to worry about losing the receipt — which has details of the quantity, quality and the warehouse where the commodity is stored — as it will be uploaded online and will be accessible to banks while sanctioning loan.
- This will also stop farmers from taking multiple bank loans on a single receipt.
What are Negotiable Warehouse Receipts?
Negotiable warehouse receipt, which was launched in 2011, allows transfer of ownership of that commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver the physical commodity. These receipts are issued in negotiable form, making them eligible as collateral for loans.
Warehouse receipts are made negotiable under the Warehouse (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007, and regulated by the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).
NWR are issued by registered warehouses enables farmers to seek loans from banks against NWRs
IncorrectSolution: c
Government launches negotiable warehousing receipts in e-format
The government has rolled out negotiable warehousing receipts in electronic format that farmers can use to avail of bank credit easily and without fear of losing or misusing it.
Benefits of e receipts:
Till now, the receipts were issued manually. Now, it will be given in an electronic format, which will not only benefit farmers, but banks and other stakeholders.
- Farmers will not have to worry about losing the receipt — which has details of the quantity, quality and the warehouse where the commodity is stored — as it will be uploaded online and will be accessible to banks while sanctioning loan.
- This will also stop farmers from taking multiple bank loans on a single receipt.
What are Negotiable Warehouse Receipts?
Negotiable warehouse receipt, which was launched in 2011, allows transfer of ownership of that commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver the physical commodity. These receipts are issued in negotiable form, making them eligible as collateral for loans.
Warehouse receipts are made negotiable under the Warehouse (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007, and regulated by the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).
NWR are issued by registered warehouses enables farmers to seek loans from banks against NWRs
-
Question 9 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements
- FPO mark got a mandatory status only after the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006.
- India organic is the certification mark issued by Ministry of Agriculture
and Farmers welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a
The FPO mark is a certification mark mandatory on all processed fruit
products sold in India such as packaged fruit beverages, fruit-jams,
crushes and squashes, pickles, dehydrated fruit products, and fruit
extracts, following the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006.The standards have been in force since 1955 by the law of Fruit Products
Order, after which the mark is named, but the mark itself got a
mandatory status only after the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006.India Organic is a certification mark for organically farmed food products manufactured in India. The certification mark certifies that an organic food product conforms to the National Standards for Organic Products established in 2000.
Those standards ensures that the product or the raw materials used in the product were grown through organic farming, without the use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, or induced hormones. The certification is issued by testing centres accredited by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) under the National Program for Organic Production of the Government of India.
IncorrectSolution: a
The FPO mark is a certification mark mandatory on all processed fruit
products sold in India such as packaged fruit beverages, fruit-jams,
crushes and squashes, pickles, dehydrated fruit products, and fruit
extracts, following the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006.The standards have been in force since 1955 by the law of Fruit Products
Order, after which the mark is named, but the mark itself got a
mandatory status only after the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006.India Organic is a certification mark for organically farmed food products manufactured in India. The certification mark certifies that an organic food product conforms to the National Standards for Organic Products established in 2000.
Those standards ensures that the product or the raw materials used in the product were grown through organic farming, without the use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, or induced hormones. The certification is issued by testing centres accredited by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) under the National Program for Organic Production of the Government of India.
-
Question 10 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Urea Subsidy
- Presently, urea is made available to farmers at statutorily controlled price.
- 100% Neem Coated Urea was made mandatory in 2019
- Urea production units use Natural Gas as well as Naphtha as feedstock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a
Urea Subsidy is a part of Central Sector Scheme of Department of Fertilizers wholly financed by the Government of India.
The difference between the delivered cost of fertilizers at farm gate and MRP payable by the farmer is given as subsidy to the fertilizer manufacturer/importer by the Government of India.
Urea production units use Natural Gas as well as Naphtha as feedstock/fuel.
Presently, urea is made available to farmers at statutorily controlled price.
Features of Urea
Urea, a white crystalline solid containing 46% nitrogen, is widely used in the agricultural industry as an animal feed additive and fertilizer.
Unlike many fertilizers, Urea can be applied to soil as a solid or solution.
100% Neem Coated Urea was made mandatory in 2015.
Benefits of Neem Coating Urea
- Improvement in soil health.
- Reduction in costs with respect to plant protection chemicals.
- Reduction in pest and disease attack.
- Plugging the diversion of the subsidized Urea towards non-agricultural purposes.
- It reduces loss of Nitrogen/ammonia from urea when it remains on the soil surface for extended periods of time during warm weather.
IncorrectSolution: a
Urea Subsidy is a part of Central Sector Scheme of Department of Fertilizers wholly financed by the Government of India.
The difference between the delivered cost of fertilizers at farm gate and MRP payable by the farmer is given as subsidy to the fertilizer manufacturer/importer by the Government of India.
Urea production units use Natural Gas as well as Naphtha as feedstock/fuel.
Presently, urea is made available to farmers at statutorily controlled price.
Features of Urea
Urea, a white crystalline solid containing 46% nitrogen, is widely used in the agricultural industry as an animal feed additive and fertilizer.
Unlike many fertilizers, Urea can be applied to soil as a solid or solution.
100% Neem Coated Urea was made mandatory in 2015.
Benefits of Neem Coating Urea
- Improvement in soil health.
- Reduction in costs with respect to plant protection chemicals.
- Reduction in pest and disease attack.
- Plugging the diversion of the subsidized Urea towards non-agricultural purposes.
- It reduces loss of Nitrogen/ammonia from urea when it remains on the soil surface for extended periods of time during warm weather.
-
Question 11 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding ‘One Nation One Ration Card’ scheme
- It aims to provide portability of food security benefits all across the nation.
- It is launched by Ministry of Consumer Affairs and Food and Public Distribution.
- It would integrate the existing PDS systems/portals of States/UTs with the Central systems/portals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: d
Government has launched One Nation-One Ration Card scheme on pilot basis in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharastra and Gujarat. Families who have food security cards can buy subsidized rice and wheat from any ration shop in these states but their ration cards should be linked with Aadhar Number to avail this service.
About the scheme:
- One Nation One Ration Card (RC) will ensure all beneficiaries especially migrants can access PDS across the nation from any PDS shop of their own choice.
- Benefits: no poor person is deprived of getting subsidized food grains under the food security scheme when they shift from one place to another. It also aims to remove the chance of anyone holding more than one ration card to avail benefits from different states.
- Significance: This will provide freedom to the beneficiaries as they will not be tied to any one PDS shop and reduce their dependence on shop owners and curtail instances of corruption.
- It is launched by Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
- It would integrate the existing PDS systems/portals of States/UTs with the Central systems/portals.
Challenges:
- Prone to corruption: Every state has its own rules for Public Distribution System (PDS). If ‘One Nation, One Ration Card’ is implemented, it will further boost corruption in an already corrupted Public Distribution System.
- The scheme will increase the woes of the common man and, the middlemen and corrupt PDS shop owners will exploit them.
- Tamil Nadu has opposed the proposal of the Centre, saying it would result in undesirable consequences and is against federalism.
IncorrectSolution: d
Government has launched One Nation-One Ration Card scheme on pilot basis in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharastra and Gujarat. Families who have food security cards can buy subsidized rice and wheat from any ration shop in these states but their ration cards should be linked with Aadhar Number to avail this service.
About the scheme:
- One Nation One Ration Card (RC) will ensure all beneficiaries especially migrants can access PDS across the nation from any PDS shop of their own choice.
- Benefits: no poor person is deprived of getting subsidized food grains under the food security scheme when they shift from one place to another. It also aims to remove the chance of anyone holding more than one ration card to avail benefits from different states.
- Significance: This will provide freedom to the beneficiaries as they will not be tied to any one PDS shop and reduce their dependence on shop owners and curtail instances of corruption.
- It is launched by Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
- It would integrate the existing PDS systems/portals of States/UTs with the Central systems/portals.
Challenges:
- Prone to corruption: Every state has its own rules for Public Distribution System (PDS). If ‘One Nation, One Ration Card’ is implemented, it will further boost corruption in an already corrupted Public Distribution System.
- The scheme will increase the woes of the common man and, the middlemen and corrupt PDS shop owners will exploit them.
- Tamil Nadu has opposed the proposal of the Centre, saying it would result in undesirable consequences and is against federalism.
-
Question 12 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Food Corporation of India
- It is a statutory body
- It has primary duty to undertake purchase, store, and transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c
The Food Corporation of India is an organization created and run by the Government of India. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Its top official is designated as Chairman. It was set up in 1965 with its Initial headquarters at Chennai. Later this was moved to New Delhi. It also has regional centers in the capitals of the states. Important regions of the state also serve as district centers.
Objectives:
-
- Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the poor farmers
- Distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for Public Distribution System (PDS)
- Maintaining a satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure National Food Security
- Regulate market price to provide food grains to consumers at a reliable price.
- It has primary duty to undertake purchase, store, and move/transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs.
IncorrectSolution: c
The Food Corporation of India is an organization created and run by the Government of India. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Its top official is designated as Chairman. It was set up in 1965 with its Initial headquarters at Chennai. Later this was moved to New Delhi. It also has regional centers in the capitals of the states. Important regions of the state also serve as district centers.
Objectives:
-
- Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the poor farmers
- Distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for Public Distribution System (PDS)
- Maintaining a satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure National Food Security
- Regulate market price to provide food grains to consumers at a reliable price.
- It has primary duty to undertake purchase, store, and move/transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs.
-
Question 13 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding characteristics of Mangroves
- They are basically evergreen land plants and found in locations where no silt is found.
- Their physiological adaptation to salinity stress and to water logged anaerobic mud is high.
- It produces pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome respiration problem.
- Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of reproduction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: b
Characteristics of mangroves
- They are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on tidal flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier islands.
- The best locations are where abundant silt is brought down by rivers or on the backshore of accreting sandy beaches.
- Their physiological adaptation to salinity stress and to water logged anaerobic mud is high.
- They require high solar radiation and have the ability to absorb fresh water from saline/brackish water.
- It produces pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome respiration problem in the anaerobic soil conditions.
- Mangroves occur in variety of configurations. Some species (e.g. Rhizophora) send arching prop roots down into the water. While other (e.g. Avicennia) send vertical “Pneumatophores” or air roots up from the mud.
- Most mangrove vegetation has lenticellated bank which facilitates more water loss, produces coppices. Leaves are thick and contain salt secreting glands.
- Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of reproduction. i.e. seeds germinate in the tree itself (before falling to the ground). This is an adaptative mechanism to overcome the problem of germination in saline water.
- Some secrete excess salt through their leaves as if you look closely, you can see crystals of salt on the back of the leaves; others block absorption of salt at their roots.
- Adventitious roots which emerged from the main trunk of a tree above ground level are called stilt roots.
IncorrectSolution: b
Characteristics of mangroves
- They are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on tidal flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier islands.
- The best locations are where abundant silt is brought down by rivers or on the backshore of accreting sandy beaches.
- Their physiological adaptation to salinity stress and to water logged anaerobic mud is high.
- They require high solar radiation and have the ability to absorb fresh water from saline/brackish water.
- It produces pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome respiration problem in the anaerobic soil conditions.
- Mangroves occur in variety of configurations. Some species (e.g. Rhizophora) send arching prop roots down into the water. While other (e.g. Avicennia) send vertical “Pneumatophores” or air roots up from the mud.
- Most mangrove vegetation has lenticellated bank which facilitates more water loss, produces coppices. Leaves are thick and contain salt secreting glands.
- Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of reproduction. i.e. seeds germinate in the tree itself (before falling to the ground). This is an adaptative mechanism to overcome the problem of germination in saline water.
- Some secrete excess salt through their leaves as if you look closely, you can see crystals of salt on the back of the leaves; others block absorption of salt at their roots.
- Adventitious roots which emerged from the main trunk of a tree above ground level are called stilt roots.
-
Question 14 of 30
1 points
Concessional Finance Scheme (CFS), sometime seen in the news, aims to
CorrectSolution: d
Concessional Finance Scheme (CFS)
Under it, government has been supporting Indian Entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad since 2015-16. Since the objectives of the Scheme continue to be relevant, it is proposed to extend the Scheme for another five years from 2018 to 2023.
Implementation Strategy and Targets:
Under the Scheme, MEA selects the specific projects keeping in view strategic interest of India and sends the same to Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).
The strategic importance of a project to deserve financing under this Scheme, is decided, on a case to case basis, by a Committee chaired by Secretary, DEA and with members from Department of Expenditure, Ministry of External Affairs, Department of Industrial Promotion and Policy (DIPP), Department of Commerce, Department of Financial Services and Ministry of Home Affairs. The Deputy National Security Adviser is also a member of this Committee. Once approved by the Committee, DEA issues a formal letter to EXIM Bank conveying approval for financing of the project under CFS.
The Scheme is presently being operated through the Export-Import Bank of India, which raises resources from the market to provide concessional finance. Government of India (GoI) provides counter guarantee and interest equalization support of 2% to the EXIM Bank.
IncorrectSolution: d
Concessional Finance Scheme (CFS)
Under it, government has been supporting Indian Entities bidding for strategically important infrastructure projects abroad since 2015-16. Since the objectives of the Scheme continue to be relevant, it is proposed to extend the Scheme for another five years from 2018 to 2023.
Implementation Strategy and Targets:
Under the Scheme, MEA selects the specific projects keeping in view strategic interest of India and sends the same to Department of Economic Affairs (DEA).
The strategic importance of a project to deserve financing under this Scheme, is decided, on a case to case basis, by a Committee chaired by Secretary, DEA and with members from Department of Expenditure, Ministry of External Affairs, Department of Industrial Promotion and Policy (DIPP), Department of Commerce, Department of Financial Services and Ministry of Home Affairs. The Deputy National Security Adviser is also a member of this Committee. Once approved by the Committee, DEA issues a formal letter to EXIM Bank conveying approval for financing of the project under CFS.
The Scheme is presently being operated through the Export-Import Bank of India, which raises resources from the market to provide concessional finance. Government of India (GoI) provides counter guarantee and interest equalization support of 2% to the EXIM Bank.
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Question 15 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Commission (IOC)
- It is an intergovernmental organization.
- Malta and Mauritius are members of the organization.
- India and Madagascar are observer members of the organization
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a
The Indian Ocean Commission (IOC) is an intergovernmental organization which brings together five member states : the Union of the Comoros, France in respect of La Réunion, Madagascar, Mauritius and the Seychelles. Created by the Port-Louis Declaration in 1982, the IOC was institutionalized in Seychelles in 1984 by the General Agreement for Cooperation, better known as the “Victoria Agreement ”.
The only regional organization in Africa composed exclusively of islands, it defends the specificities of its member states on the continental and international scenes. Benefiting from the active support of a dozen international partners , the IOC embodies regional solidarity through cooperation projects covering a wide range of sectors: preservation of ecosystems, sustainable management of natural resources, maritime security, entrepreneurship, public health , renewable energies or culture.
In 2016, an observer member status with the IOC was created. IOC observer members are invited to major organizational meetings and maintain a sustained dialogue on subjects of common interest.
IOC has seven observers – India, China, Malta, European Union, International Organization of La Francophonie (OIF), Japan and United Nations
IncorrectSolution: a
The Indian Ocean Commission (IOC) is an intergovernmental organization which brings together five member states : the Union of the Comoros, France in respect of La Réunion, Madagascar, Mauritius and the Seychelles. Created by the Port-Louis Declaration in 1982, the IOC was institutionalized in Seychelles in 1984 by the General Agreement for Cooperation, better known as the “Victoria Agreement ”.
The only regional organization in Africa composed exclusively of islands, it defends the specificities of its member states on the continental and international scenes. Benefiting from the active support of a dozen international partners , the IOC embodies regional solidarity through cooperation projects covering a wide range of sectors: preservation of ecosystems, sustainable management of natural resources, maritime security, entrepreneurship, public health , renewable energies or culture.
In 2016, an observer member status with the IOC was created. IOC observer members are invited to major organizational meetings and maintain a sustained dialogue on subjects of common interest.
IOC has seven observers – India, China, Malta, European Union, International Organization of La Francophonie (OIF), Japan and United Nations
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Question 16 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements in relation to BRICS:
- First BRIC formal summit was held in 2009 in the city of Yekaterinburg.
- Latest summit (2021) was held in the city of Moscow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a
- The BRIC grouping’s 1st formal summit, held in Yekaterinburg, commenced on 16 June 2009.
- Since 2009, the governments of the BRICS states have met annually at formal summits. India hosted the most recent 13th BRICS summit on 9 September 2021 virtually.
IncorrectSolution: a
- The BRIC grouping’s 1st formal summit, held in Yekaterinburg, commenced on 16 June 2009.
- Since 2009, the governments of the BRICS states have met annually at formal summits. India hosted the most recent 13th BRICS summit on 9 September 2021 virtually.
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Question 17 of 30
1 points
“Operation Twist” sometimes seen in news is an initiative of:
CorrectSolution: d
- Operation Twist is the name given to a US Federal Reserve monetary policy operation, which involves the purchase and sale of government securities to boost the economy by bringing down long-term interest rates.
- RBI goes for ‘Operation Twist’ to bring down long-term rates.
IncorrectSolution: d
- Operation Twist is the name given to a US Federal Reserve monetary policy operation, which involves the purchase and sale of government securities to boost the economy by bringing down long-term interest rates.
- RBI goes for ‘Operation Twist’ to bring down long-term rates.
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Question 18 of 30
1 points
The agreement to jointly develop air-launched unmanned aerial vehicles (ALUAV) or drones that can be launched from an aircraft was recently signed between India and which of the following country:
CorrectSolution : b
India and the US have signed an agreement to jointly develop air-launched unmanned aerial vehicles (ALUAV) or drones that can be launched from an aircraft. This involves teaming up manned and unmanned aircraft for missions.
IncorrectSolution : b
India and the US have signed an agreement to jointly develop air-launched unmanned aerial vehicles (ALUAV) or drones that can be launched from an aircraft. This involves teaming up manned and unmanned aircraft for missions.
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Question 19 of 30
1 points
In the context of India’s Forex reserves, consider the following statements:
- Indian Foreign Exchange reserves are around US$ 612 billion.
- India is the fourth largest Forex reserve holder after China, Japan, and Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c
- Indian Foreign Exchange reserves hit a new lifetime high of around US$ 612 billion.
- India the fourth largest Forex reserve holder after China, Japan, and Switzerland.
IncorrectSolution: c
- Indian Foreign Exchange reserves hit a new lifetime high of around US$ 612 billion.
- India the fourth largest Forex reserve holder after China, Japan, and Switzerland.
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Question 20 of 30
1 points
In the context of Indian-US bilateral agreements, consider the following :
- Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) for Geospatial Intelligence.
- Logistics Exchange Memorandum Agreement (LEMOA)
- Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA)
- General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA)
Which of the above agreements were signed between India and the US?
CorrectSolution: d
- All of them were signed.
- India and the United States signed the landmark defence pact, Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) during the third round of 2 + 2 India-US ministerial dialogue.
- BECA is the final of the four foundational agreements that the US signs with close partners
IncorrectSolution: d
- All of them were signed.
- India and the United States signed the landmark defence pact, Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) during the third round of 2 + 2 India-US ministerial dialogue.
- BECA is the final of the four foundational agreements that the US signs with close partners
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Question 21 of 30
1 points
With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statement:
- IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
- The World Bank participates as an observer in IMFC’s meetings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAnswer : C
It is the Ministerial-level committee of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
It meets twice a year, once during the Fund-Bank Annual Meetings in October and once during the Spring Meetings in April.
IMFC has 24 members, drawn from the pool of 189 governors, and represents all member countries.
India is one of the current members.
It operates on consensus, including on the selection of its chairman.IncorrectAnswer : C
It is the Ministerial-level committee of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
It meets twice a year, once during the Fund-Bank Annual Meetings in October and once during the Spring Meetings in April.
IMFC has 24 members, drawn from the pool of 189 governors, and represents all member countries.
India is one of the current members.
It operates on consensus, including on the selection of its chairman. -
Question 22 of 30
1 points
As per the definition given by Census 2011, which of the following is/are the criteria for recognition as a Census Town?
- A minimum population of 5000
- At least 75 per cent of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.
- A density of population of at least 500 persons per sq. km. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectAnswer B
1)A minimum population of 5,000;
2) At least 75 percent of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; and
3) A density of population of at least 400 persons per sq. km.
IncorrectAnswer B
1)A minimum population of 5,000;
2) At least 75 percent of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; and
3) A density of population of at least 400 persons per sq. km.
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Question 23 of 30
1 points
Consider the following
- India became the 2nd largest steel producer in the world after China
- The demand of raw material for Iron-steel industry in India, i.e., iron ore for Indian Steel Industry is met from the domestic supply in the country
Which of the above are correct?
CorrectAnswer C
India surpassed Japan as the second top steel producer in January 2019. India was the world’s second-largest steel producer with production standing at 111.2 million tonnes (MT) in 2019.
The growth in the Indian steel sector has been driven by the domestic availability of raw materials such as iron ore and cost-effective labourIncorrectAnswer C
India surpassed Japan as the second top steel producer in January 2019. India was the world’s second-largest steel producer with production standing at 111.2 million tonnes (MT) in 2019.
The growth in the Indian steel sector has been driven by the domestic availability of raw materials such as iron ore and cost-effective labour -
Question 24 of 30
1 points
Which of the following can play positive role in location of Sugarcane industries
- Tropical climate
- Plain
- Black cotton soil
CorrectAnswer D
Sugar industry is and agro-based industry. Sugarcane is the raw material in sugar industry. Sugarcane is perishable and weight losing raw material.It is also heavy and bulky raw material. Taking into consideration all above characteristics of raw material used in sugar industry, it is always located in the areas of sugarcane production
It can tolerate any soil that retains moisture
IncorrectAnswer D
Sugar industry is and agro-based industry. Sugarcane is the raw material in sugar industry. Sugarcane is perishable and weight losing raw material.It is also heavy and bulky raw material. Taking into consideration all above characteristics of raw material used in sugar industry, it is always located in the areas of sugarcane production
It can tolerate any soil that retains moisture
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Question 25 of 30
1 points
With reference to urbanization in India and the world, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The growth rate of urban population in India is constantly increasing every year since independence.
- Both the urban and rural population growth rate has been consistently
.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectAnswer D
Although the absolute number of urban populations is increasing constantly, the growth rate has been variable.
Both the urban and rural population has been consistently increasing although the rate of increase has declined.IncorrectAnswer D
Although the absolute number of urban populations is increasing constantly, the growth rate has been variable.
Both the urban and rural population has been consistently increasing although the rate of increase has declined. -
Question 26 of 30
1 points
A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B can do it in 15 days. How long will they take if both work together?
CorrectAnswer : b
A’s one day work will be 5%, while B will do 6.66 % of the work in one day. Hence, their total work will be 11.66% in a day.
In 8 days they will complete → 11.66 x 8 = 93.33% This will leave 6.66% of the work. This will correspond to 4/7 of the ninth day.
IncorrectAnswer : b
A’s one day work will be 5%, while B will do 6.66 % of the work in one day. Hence, their total work will be 11.66% in a day.
In 8 days they will complete → 11.66 x 8 = 93.33% This will leave 6.66% of the work. This will correspond to 4/7 of the ninth day.
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Question 27 of 30
1 points
A is thrice as good as workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 60 days less than B. Working together, they can do it in:
CorrectAnswer : B
IncorrectAnswer : B
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Question 28 of 30
1 points
Nishu and Archana can do a piece of work in 10 days days and Nishu alone can do it in 12 days. In how many days can Archana do it alone?
CorrectAnswer : a
N+ A = 10%
N = 8.33%
Hence A = 1.66% → 60 days.IncorrectAnswer : a
N+ A = 10%
N = 8.33%
Hence A = 1.66% → 60 days. -
Question 29 of 30
1 points
Raju is twice as good as Vijay. Together, they finish the work in 14 days. In how many days can Vijay alone do the same work?
CorrectAnswer : d
Raju being twice as good a workman as Vijay, You can solve the following equation to get the
Required answer:
1/R + 1/2R = 1/14.
Solving will give you that Vijay takes 42 days.IncorrectAnswer : d
Raju being twice as good a workman as Vijay, You can solve the following equation to get the
Required answer:
1/R + 1/2R = 1/14.
Solving will give you that Vijay takes 42 days. -
Question 30 of 30
1 points
Passage-01
An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in the atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction between plants and microorganisms that would unsettle the largest carbon reservoirs on the planet-soil. In a study, it was found that the soil, which contains twice atmosphere combined, could become increasingly the amount of carbon present in all plants and Earth’s volatile as people add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. This is largely because of increased plant growth. Although, a greenhouse gas and a pollutant, other vegetation flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future carbon dioxide also supports plant growth. As trees and their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil that may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon and its release into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.
Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
CorrectAnswer : D
In the passage, author says about the effect of increased carbon dioxide. Increase in concentration of carbon dioxide will start chain reaction between plants and destabilised the carbon trapped in the soil. Soil contains more than double amount of carbon present in plants and atmosphere combined. When more carbon dioxide is present in atmosphere, then there will be more plant growth and these plants will support microorganisms in soil. Finally, these microorganisms cause carbon to convert into carbon dioxide and this Co, will release into atmosphere from the soil. So, conclusion can be made from passage that the increasing plant cover can also cause the release of carbon from soil.
IncorrectAnswer : D
In the passage, author says about the effect of increased carbon dioxide. Increase in concentration of carbon dioxide will start chain reaction between plants and destabilised the carbon trapped in the soil. Soil contains more than double amount of carbon present in plants and atmosphere combined. When more carbon dioxide is present in atmosphere, then there will be more plant growth and these plants will support microorganisms in soil. Finally, these microorganisms cause carbon to convert into carbon dioxide and this Co, will release into atmosphere from the soil. So, conclusion can be made from passage that the increasing plant cover can also cause the release of carbon from soil.
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