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Puucho CURRENT Affairs RTM – 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements about Qutb Minar:
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- It is a five-storeyed red sandstone tower built by Muslim conquerors in the thirteenth century.
- Its construction was started by Qutub-ud-din Aibak and finished by Muhammad-bin-Tughluq.
- Qutub Minar and its monuments were declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1993.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- It was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008.
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)reviews the manpower, financial and infrastructure requirements of NIA from time to time.
- It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organizations.
- Its objective is to combat terror in India.
- It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
- Headquarters: New Delhi
- Branches: Hyderabad, Guwahati, Kochi, Lucknow, Mumbai, Kolkata, Raipur and Jammu.
- The cases are assigned to the NIA by the Central Government in accordance with section VI of the NIA Act, 2008.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/yasin-malik-gets-lifeterm-for-terror-funding/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- It was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008.
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)reviews the manpower, financial and infrastructure requirements of NIA from time to time.
- It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organizations.
- Its objective is to combat terror in India.
- It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
- Headquarters: New Delhi
- Branches: Hyderabad, Guwahati, Kochi, Lucknow, Mumbai, Kolkata, Raipur and Jammu.
- The cases are assigned to the NIA by the Central Government in accordance with section VI of the NIA Act, 2008.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/yasin-malik-gets-lifeterm-for-terror-funding/
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Question 2 of 10
1 points
Abraham Accord was signed between
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation: Abraham Accord:
- It was signed between Israel, the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain and is mediated by the USA.
- It is the first Arab-Israeli peace deal in 26 years.
- As per the agreements, the UAE and Bahrain will establish:
- Embassies and exchange ambassadors.
- Working together with Israel across a range of sectors, including tourism, trade, healthcare and security.
- The Abraham Accords also open the door for Muslims around the world to visit the historic sites in Israel and to peacefully pray at Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem, the third holiest site in Islam.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/palestine-issue-doesnt-diminish-india-israel-relations/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation: Abraham Accord:
- It was signed between Israel, the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain and is mediated by the USA.
- It is the first Arab-Israeli peace deal in 26 years.
- As per the agreements, the UAE and Bahrain will establish:
- Embassies and exchange ambassadors.
- Working together with Israel across a range of sectors, including tourism, trade, healthcare and security.
- The Abraham Accords also open the door for Muslims around the world to visit the historic sites in Israel and to peacefully pray at Al-Aqsa Mosque in Jerusalem, the third holiest site in Islam.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/palestine-issue-doesnt-diminish-india-israel-relations/
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Question 3 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements about Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
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- It is an intergovernmental organisation founded in 1989 on the initiative of the G20.
- There are currently 167 members of the FATF.
- Its Secretariat is located at the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- An inter-governmental body established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris.
- It assesses the strength of a country’s anti-money laundering and anti-terror financing frameworks.
- It sets standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.
- Its Secretariat is located at the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
- The FATF currently has 39 members including two regional organizations – the European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council.
- India is a member of the FATF.
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- An inter-governmental body established in 1989 during the G7 Summit in Paris.
- It assesses the strength of a country’s anti-money laundering and anti-terror financing frameworks.
- It sets standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.
- Its Secretariat is located at the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) headquarters in Paris.
- The FATF currently has 39 members including two regional organizations – the European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council.
- India is a member of the FATF.
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Question 4 of 10
1 points
The Election Commission of India (ECI) administers elections to
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- Lok Sabha
- Rajya Sabha
- State Legislative Assemblies
- Offices of the President and Vice President
- State Legislative Councils
Select the correct answer using the code below:
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Question 5 of 10
1 points
With reference to Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:
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- It is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India.
- It operates under the authority of Constitution per Article 324, and subsequently enacted Representation of the People Act.
- It consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and three Election Commissioners appointed by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation: Election Commission of India (ECI):
- The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
- It administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
- Part XV of the Indian constitutiondeals with elections, and establishes a commission for these matters.
- Article 324 to 329 of the constitutiondeals with powers, function, tenure, eligibility, etc of the commission and the members.
- It consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners appointed by the President.
- They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament.
- It grants recognition to political parties & allot election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it.
- The Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
- It issues the Model Code of Conductin election for political parties and candidates so that no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power.
- It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidateto all the political parties, and also monitors the same.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/poll-panel-moves-against-nonexistent-parties/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation: Election Commission of India (ECI):
- The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
- It administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
- Part XV of the Indian constitutiondeals with elections, and establishes a commission for these matters.
- Article 324 to 329 of the constitutiondeals with powers, function, tenure, eligibility, etc of the commission and the members.
- It consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners appointed by the President.
- They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament.
- It grants recognition to political parties & allot election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it.
- The Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
- It issues the Model Code of Conductin election for political parties and candidates so that no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power.
- It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidateto all the political parties, and also monitors the same.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/poll-panel-moves-against-nonexistent-parties/
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Question 6 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements about International Labour Organization (ILO):
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- It is the only tripartite U.N. agency.
- It was established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles.
- Its founding Mission is social justice is essential to universal and lasting peace.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (d)
Explanation: International Labour Organization (ILO):
- It is the only tripartite U.N. agency that brings together governments, employers and workers of 187 member States.
- It sets labour standards, develops policies and devises programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
- It was established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versaillesas an affiliated agency of the League of Nations.
- It became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.
- Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
- Its founding Mission is social justice is essential to universal and lasting peace.
- Itpromotes internationally recognized human and labour rights.
- It is providing substantial support in the building of an ethical and productive framework for fair globalization.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/frame-policies-to-protect-lgbtiq-workers-says-ilo/
IncorrectAns: (d)
Explanation: International Labour Organization (ILO):
- It is the only tripartite U.N. agency that brings together governments, employers and workers of 187 member States.
- It sets labour standards, develops policies and devises programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
- It was established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versaillesas an affiliated agency of the League of Nations.
- It became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.
- Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
- Its founding Mission is social justice is essential to universal and lasting peace.
- Itpromotes internationally recognized human and labour rights.
- It is providing substantial support in the building of an ethical and productive framework for fair globalization.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/frame-policies-to-protect-lgbtiq-workers-says-ilo/
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Question 7 of 10
1 points
With reference to Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, consider the following statements:
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- It was enacted for the protection of plants and animal species.
- It extends to the whole of India.
- It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal specified in act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- Prohibition of hunting:
- It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV of the act.
- Exception: A wild animal listed under these schedules can be hunted/ killed only after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the stateif:
- It becomes dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land.
- It is disabled or suffering from a disease that is beyond recovery.
- It prohibits the uprooting, damage, collection, possession or selling of any specified plant from any forest land or any protected area.
- Exception: The CWLW, however, may grant permission for uprooting or collecting a specific plant for the purpose of education, scientific research, preservation in a herbarium or if a person/institution is approved to do so by the central government.
- The government can declare an area (including an area within a sanctuary) as a National Park. A Collectoris appointed by the central government to administer the area declared as a Sanctuary.
- Under Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972,States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter.
- The Act was enacted for the protection of plants and animal species.
- It extends to the whole of India. Prior to this legislation, India had only five designated national parks.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/kerala-empowers-local-bodies-to-cull-wild-boars/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- Prohibition of hunting:
- It prohibits the hunting of any wild animal specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV of the act.
- Exception: A wild animal listed under these schedules can be hunted/ killed only after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of the stateif:
- It becomes dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land.
- It is disabled or suffering from a disease that is beyond recovery.
- It prohibits the uprooting, damage, collection, possession or selling of any specified plant from any forest land or any protected area.
- Exception: The CWLW, however, may grant permission for uprooting or collecting a specific plant for the purpose of education, scientific research, preservation in a herbarium or if a person/institution is approved to do so by the central government.
- The government can declare an area (including an area within a sanctuary) as a National Park. A Collectoris appointed by the central government to administer the area declared as a Sanctuary.
- Under Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972,States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter.
- The Act was enacted for the protection of plants and animal species.
- It extends to the whole of India. Prior to this legislation, India had only five designated national parks.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/26/kerala-empowers-local-bodies-to-cull-wild-boars/
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Question 8 of 10
1 points
Which one of the following pairs (Protected Site: State) is NOT correctly matched?
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Question 9 of 10
1 points
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
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- In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
- In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
- AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
- VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2 have been interchanged.Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, S3 is also correct. Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, S4 is correct.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2 have been interchanged.Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, S3 is also correct. Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, S4 is correct.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
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Question 10 of 10
1 points
With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- Option A incorrect since it is difficult to envisage how this can be achieved because it is one thing to create an artificial chromosome and quite another to to make it functional. Option B is Artificial Gene Synthesis whereas Option D is Plant and Animal Tissue Culture Technology. Option C is Cloning.
- S2: Artificial gene synthesis, sometimes known as DNA printing is a method in synthetic biology that is used to create artificial genes in the laboratory. The method has been used to generate functional bacterial or yeast chromosomes containing approximately one million base pairs.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- Option A incorrect since it is difficult to envisage how this can be achieved because it is one thing to create an artificial chromosome and quite another to to make it functional. Option B is Artificial Gene Synthesis whereas Option D is Plant and Animal Tissue Culture Technology. Option C is Cloning.
- S2: Artificial gene synthesis, sometimes known as DNA printing is a method in synthetic biology that is used to create artificial genes in the laboratory. The method has been used to generate functional bacterial or yeast chromosomes containing approximately one million base pairs.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
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