[ad_1]
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
About Insta 75 days revision plan 2022
- Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2022 [ HERE ]
- CSAT Plan for Insta 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Know about how to follow INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan – 2022 [ CLICK HERE ]
- Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ]
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
-
Question 1 of 30
1 points
Which of the following is/are the functions of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
- To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon.
- To review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures.
- To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the
prevention of such violation by a public servant, however, only on a
petition presented to it or on an order of a court but not suo motu. - To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and
make recommendations for their effective implementation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
CorrectSolution: C
The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory but non-constitutional body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
The functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are:
- To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- To intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.
- To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection
of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation. - To review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
IncorrectSolution: C
The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory but non-constitutional body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
The functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are:
- To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- To intervene in any proceeding involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.
- To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendation thereon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection
of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation. - To review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 2 of 30
1 points
With reference to the Chief Election Commissioner, consider the following statements:
- He/she hold his/her office till the pleasure of the president.
- The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be
varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure.
He cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the
same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Thus, he does not hold his
office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be
varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.IncorrectSolution: B
The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure.
He cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the
same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Thus, he does not hold his
office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be
varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. -
Question 3 of 30
1 points
With reference to NITI Aayog, consider the following statements:
- It is a non-statutory body.
- President of India is the chairperson of NITI Aayog.
- Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog enjoys the rank of cabinet minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
The NITI Aayog, like that of the Planning Commission, was also created by an executive resolution of the Government of India (i.e., Union Cabinet). Hence, it is also neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
The Prime Minister of India is the chairperson of NITI Aayog.
Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister. He enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister.
IncorrectSolution: C
The NITI Aayog, like that of the Planning Commission, was also created by an executive resolution of the Government of India (i.e., Union Cabinet). Hence, it is also neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
The Prime Minister of India is the chairperson of NITI Aayog.
Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister. He enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister.
-
Question 4 of 30
1 points
With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs), consider the following statements:
- It is directly established by Article 338 of the Constitution.
- The Commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any
complaint, has all the powers of a criminal court trying a suit. - It can submit a report to President as and when it thinks necessary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional
body in the sense that it is directly established by Article 338 of the
Constitution.The Commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any
complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit.The commission presents an annual report to the president. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary.
The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a
memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by
the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the
non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.IncorrectSolution: C
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional
body in the sense that it is directly established by Article 338 of the
Constitution.The Commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any
complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit.The commission presents an annual report to the president. It can also submit a report as and when it thinks necessary.
The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a
memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by
the Commission. The memorandum should also contain the reasons for the
non-acceptance of any of such recommendations. -
Question 5 of 30
1 points
With reference to the Central Vigilance Commissioner, consider the following statements:
- Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed by the President of India.
- After his/her tenure, Central Vigilance Commissioner is not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government.
- The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Central
Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners.
They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.They hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier. After their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government.
The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC and that of the vigilance commissioner are similar to those of a member of UPSC. But they cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
IncorrectSolution: D
The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners.
They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.They hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier. After their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government.
The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC and that of the vigilance commissioner are similar to those of a member of UPSC. But they cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
-
Question 6 of 30
1 points
With reference to the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body
- It works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child development
- As per the commission, definition of child includes those up to the age of 14 years
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is an Indian governmental commission, established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act in December 2005, thus is a statutory body.
The commission works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child development, GoI. The Commission began operation a year later in March 2007.
The Commission considers that its Mandate is “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
As defined by the commission, child includes those up to the age of 18 years. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectSolution: A
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is an Indian governmental commission, established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act in December 2005, thus is a statutory body.
The commission works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child development, GoI. The Commission began operation a year later in March 2007.
The Commission considers that its Mandate is “to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.”
As defined by the commission, child includes those up to the age of 18 years. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 7 of 30
1 points
With reference to the Advocate General of State, consider the following statements:
- He is the highest law officer in the state.
- It is appointed by the governor.
- The term of office of the advocate general is fixed for 5 years by the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate
general for the states. He is the highest law officer in the state. Thus he
corresponds to the Attorney General of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.The advocate general is appointed by the governor. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectSolution: A
The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate
general for the states. He is the highest law officer in the state. Thus he
corresponds to the Attorney General of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.The advocate general is appointed by the governor. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at any time. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 8 of 30
1 points
With reference to Attorney General of India, consider the following statements:
- He receives such remuneration as the president may determine.
- He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney
General for India1. He is the highest law officer in the country.The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a
person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives
such remuneration as the president may determine.IncorrectSolution: C
The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney
General for India1. He is the highest law officer in the country.The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a
person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives
such remuneration as the president may determine. -
Question 9 of 30
1 points
With reference to the State Information Commission, consider the following statements:
- The Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not
more than five State Information Commissioners. - Members of the commission are appointed by the President of India.
- They are not eligible for reappointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
The Right to Information Act of 2005 provides for the creation of not only
the Central Information Commission but also a State Information
Commission at the state level.The Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten State Information Commissioners.
They are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly and a State Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister.
The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information
Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of
65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.IncorrectSolution: C
The Right to Information Act of 2005 provides for the creation of not only
the Central Information Commission but also a State Information
Commission at the state level.The Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten State Information Commissioners.
They are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly and a State Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister.
The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information
Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of
65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment. - The Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not
-
Question 10 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding International Energy Agency (IEA)
- It is an autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the OECD
- India is a member country of it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
IEA is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) in 1974 in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis.India is not a member country of International Energy Agency.
The IEA acts as a policy adviser to its member states, but also works with non-member countries, especially China, India, and Russia.
The Agency’s mandate has broadened to focus on the “3Es” of effectual energy policy: energy security, economic development, and environmental protection. The latter has focused on mitigating climate change. The IEA has a broad role in promoting alternate energy sources (including renewable energy), rational energy policies, and multinational energy technology co-operation.
IncorrectSolution: A
IEA is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) in 1974 in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis.India is not a member country of International Energy Agency.
The IEA acts as a policy adviser to its member states, but also works with non-member countries, especially China, India, and Russia.
The Agency’s mandate has broadened to focus on the “3Es” of effectual energy policy: energy security, economic development, and environmental protection. The latter has focused on mitigating climate change. The IEA has a broad role in promoting alternate energy sources (including renewable energy), rational energy policies, and multinational energy technology co-operation.
-
Question 11 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding 73rd amendment act of 1992
- The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution.
- It has brought the Panchayati raj institutions under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
All the above statements are correct.
73RD AMENDMENT ACT OF 1992
Significance of the Act
This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G.
The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution which says that, “The State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.”
This article forms a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
The act gives a constitutional status to the Panchayati raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new Panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more.
IncorrectSolution: C
All the above statements are correct.
73RD AMENDMENT ACT OF 1992
Significance of the Act
This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G.
The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution which says that, “The State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.”
This article forms a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
The act gives a constitutional status to the Panchayati raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new Panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more.
-
Question 12 of 30
1 points
Which of the following is/are the compulsory provisions under Part IX of the Constitution?
- Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
- Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
- Granting financial powers to the Panchayats.
- Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: A
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) or the Part IX of the Constitution:
Compulsory Provisions
- Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels. Hence Statement 4 is correct.
- Voting rights of the chairperson and other members of a panchayat elected directly or indirectly.
- 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
- Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat.
- Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
- Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
Voluntary Provisions
- Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
- Determining the manner of election of the chairperson of the village panchayat.
- Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
Hence, statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.
IncorrectSolution: A
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) or the Part IX of the Constitution:
Compulsory Provisions
- Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
- Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels. Hence Statement 4 is correct.
- Voting rights of the chairperson and other members of a panchayat elected directly or indirectly.
- 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
- Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels.
- Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat.
- Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
- Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
Voluntary Provisions
- Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
- Determining the manner of election of the chairperson of the village panchayat.
- Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
Hence, statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.
-
Question 13 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Municipalities
- All the members of a municipality shall be elected indirectly by the people of the municipal area.
- The state legislature may provide for the manner of reservation of offices of chairpersons in the municipalities for SCs, STs and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
74TH AMENDMENT ACT OF 1992
The salient features of the act are:
Three Types of Municipalities
The act provides for the constitution of the following three types of municipalities in every state.
- A nagar panchayat (by whatever name called) for a transitional area.
- A municipal council for a smaller urban area.
- A municipal corporation for a larger urban area.
Composition
All the members of a municipality shall be elected directly by the people of the municipal area. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
For this purpose, each municipal area shall be divided into territorial constituencies to be known as wards.
The state legislature may provide the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality. It may also provide for the representation of the following persons in a municipality.
- Persons having special knowledge or experience in municipal administration without the right to vote in the meetings of municipality.
- The members of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assembly representing constituencies that comprise wholly or partly the municipal area.
- The members of the Rajya Sabha and the state legislative council registered as electors within the municipal area.
- The chairpersons of committees (other than wards committees).
Reservation of Seats
The act provides for the reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes in every municipality in proportion of their population to the total population in the municipal area. Further, it provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for woman belonging to the SCs and the STs).
The state legislature may provide for the manner of reservation of offices of chairpersons in the municipalities for SCs, STs and women. It may also make any provision for the reservation of seats in any municipality or offices of chairpersons in municipalities in favour of backward classes.
IncorrectSolution: B
74TH AMENDMENT ACT OF 1992
The salient features of the act are:
Three Types of Municipalities
The act provides for the constitution of the following three types of municipalities in every state.
- A nagar panchayat (by whatever name called) for a transitional area.
- A municipal council for a smaller urban area.
- A municipal corporation for a larger urban area.
Composition
All the members of a municipality shall be elected directly by the people of the municipal area. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
For this purpose, each municipal area shall be divided into territorial constituencies to be known as wards.
The state legislature may provide the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality. It may also provide for the representation of the following persons in a municipality.
- Persons having special knowledge or experience in municipal administration without the right to vote in the meetings of municipality.
- The members of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assembly representing constituencies that comprise wholly or partly the municipal area.
- The members of the Rajya Sabha and the state legislative council registered as electors within the municipal area.
- The chairpersons of committees (other than wards committees).
Reservation of Seats
The act provides for the reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes in every municipality in proportion of their population to the total population in the municipal area. Further, it provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for woman belonging to the SCs and the STs).
The state legislature may provide for the manner of reservation of offices of chairpersons in the municipalities for SCs, STs and women. It may also make any provision for the reservation of seats in any municipality or offices of chairpersons in municipalities in favour of backward classes.
-
Question 14 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Sixth Schedule
- Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 20 members.
- The autonomous districts fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned.
- The governor is empowered to organize and re-organize the autonomous districts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
The various features of administration contained in the Sixth Schedule are as follows:
- The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts. But, they do not fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts. Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries and so on.
- If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor can divide the district into several autonomous regions.
- Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the council is dissolved earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor. Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
- The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction. They can make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation, village administration and inheritance of property, marriage and divorce, social customs and so on. But all such laws require the assent of the governor.
- The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes. They hear appeals from them. The jurisdiction of high court over these suits and cases is specified by the governor.
IncorrectSolution: C
The various features of administration contained in the Sixth Schedule are as follows:
- The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have been constituted as autonomous districts. But, they do not fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts. Thus, he can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries and so on.
- If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor can divide the district into several autonomous regions.
- Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the council is dissolved earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor. Each autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
- The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction. They can make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation, village administration and inheritance of property, marriage and divorce, social customs and so on. But all such laws require the assent of the governor.
- The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes. They hear appeals from them. The jurisdiction of high court over these suits and cases is specified by the governor.
-
Question 15 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Election commission
- According to the Constitution, Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and a maximum of two election commissioners.
- In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Composition
Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions with regard to the composition of election commission:
- The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the president.
- When any other election commissioner is so appointed, the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission.
- The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission.
- The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president.
The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They can resign at any time or can also be removed before the expiry of their term.
IncorrectSolution: B
Composition
Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions with regard to the composition of election commission:
- The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the president.
- When any other election commissioner is so appointed, the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission.
- The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission.
- The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president.
The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a judge of the Supreme Court. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They can resign at any time or can also be removed before the expiry of their term.
-
Question 16 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements with respect to Hypersonic Missile Technology:
- Hypersonic missiles travel with a minimum speed of 10km per second.
- Hypersonic missiles use scramjet technology.
- India already has a Hypersonic weapons system with long-range capabilities.
- Russia used its Hypersonic missile Kinzhal in the recent Ukraine war.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
- The Kh-47M2 Kinzhal (in Russian:”dagger”, NATO reporting name Killjoy) is a Russian nuclear-capable hypersonic aero-ballistic air-to-surface missile. It has a claimed range of more than 2,000 km (1,200 mi), Mach 12 speed (4.1 km/s), and an ability to perform evasive maneuvers at every stage of its flight. It can carry both conventional and nuclear warheads and can be launched from Tu-22M3 bombers or MiG-31K interceptors. It has been deployed at air bases in Russia’s Southern Military District and Western Military District.
- Hypersonic weapons are missiles and projectiles which travel at between 5 and 25 times the speed of sound – about 1 to 5 miles per second (1.6 to 8 kilometres per second).Below such speeds, weapons would be characterized as subsonic or supersonic, while above such speeds, the molecules of the atmosphere disassociate into a plasma which makes control and communication difficult. Directed-energy weapons such as lasers may operate at higher speeds but are considered a different class of weaponry.
- India is in the process of developing its Hypersonic missiles.
IncorrectSolution: C
- The Kh-47M2 Kinzhal (in Russian:”dagger”, NATO reporting name Killjoy) is a Russian nuclear-capable hypersonic aero-ballistic air-to-surface missile. It has a claimed range of more than 2,000 km (1,200 mi), Mach 12 speed (4.1 km/s), and an ability to perform evasive maneuvers at every stage of its flight. It can carry both conventional and nuclear warheads and can be launched from Tu-22M3 bombers or MiG-31K interceptors. It has been deployed at air bases in Russia’s Southern Military District and Western Military District.
- Hypersonic weapons are missiles and projectiles which travel at between 5 and 25 times the speed of sound – about 1 to 5 miles per second (1.6 to 8 kilometres per second).Below such speeds, weapons would be characterized as subsonic or supersonic, while above such speeds, the molecules of the atmosphere disassociate into a plasma which makes control and communication difficult. Directed-energy weapons such as lasers may operate at higher speeds but are considered a different class of weaponry.
- India is in the process of developing its Hypersonic missiles.
-
Question 17 of 30
1 points
The Sun is a 4.5 billion-year-old yellow dwarf star – a hot glowing ball of hydrogen and helium – at the center of our solar system. After the 1 billion year from now, the hydrogen of the sun will:
CorrectSolution:B
- Those naked hydrogen atoms then fuse together into helium atoms, and that reaction releases enough energy to counter the intense pressure of gravity collapsing the cloud of gas. The battle between gravity and the energy from fusion reactions fuels our sun and billions of other stars in our galaxy and beyond.
- But in about 5 billion years, the sun will run out of hydrogen. Our star is currently in the most stable phase of its life cycle and has been since the formation of our solar system, about 4.5 billion years ago. Once all the hydrogen gets used up, the sun will grow out of this stable phase.
IncorrectSolution:B
- Those naked hydrogen atoms then fuse together into helium atoms, and that reaction releases enough energy to counter the intense pressure of gravity collapsing the cloud of gas. The battle between gravity and the energy from fusion reactions fuels our sun and billions of other stars in our galaxy and beyond.
- But in about 5 billion years, the sun will run out of hydrogen. Our star is currently in the most stable phase of its life cycle and has been since the formation of our solar system, about 4.5 billion years ago. Once all the hydrogen gets used up, the sun will grow out of this stable phase.
-
Question 18 of 30
1 points
In the context of Chandra observatory, consider the following statements:
- Though an important observatory of NASA, it is not part of Great Observatories.
- Chandra observatory was named after ISRO scientist Subramanyam Chandrasekhar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
- Chandra is one of the Great Observatories, along with the Hubble Space Telescope, Compton Gamma Ray Observatory (1991–2000), and the Spitzer Space Telescope (2003–2020).
- Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar(19 October 1910 – 21 August 1995)[3] was an Indian-American astrophysicist who spent his professional life in the United States. He shared the 1983 Nobel Prize for Physics with William A. Fowler for “…theoretical studies of the physical processes of importance to the structure and evolution of the stars”. His mathematical treatment of stellar evolution yielded many of the current theoretical models of the later evolutionary stages of massive stars and black holes. The Chandrasekhar limit is named after him.
IncorrectSolution: D
- Chandra is one of the Great Observatories, along with the Hubble Space Telescope, Compton Gamma Ray Observatory (1991–2000), and the Spitzer Space Telescope (2003–2020).
- Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar(19 October 1910 – 21 August 1995)[3] was an Indian-American astrophysicist who spent his professional life in the United States. He shared the 1983 Nobel Prize for Physics with William A. Fowler for “…theoretical studies of the physical processes of importance to the structure and evolution of the stars”. His mathematical treatment of stellar evolution yielded many of the current theoretical models of the later evolutionary stages of massive stars and black holes. The Chandrasekhar limit is named after him.
-
Question 19 of 30
1 points
In the context of Sagittarius A*, consider the following statements:
- Recently the James Webb Telescope came out with its image.
- Sagittarius A* is a blackhole at the centre of the Milky Way Galaxy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
- Sagittarius A* is the supermassive black hole at the Galactic Center of the Milky Way. It is located near the border of the constellations Sagittarius and Scorpius, about 5.6° south of the ecliptic,visually close to the Butterfly Cluster (M6) and Lambda Scorpii.
- On May 12, 2022, the Event Horizon Telescope Collaboration, for the first time, released an image of Sagittarius A*, based on radio interferometer data taken in 2017, which confirms that the object contains a black hole.
IncorrectSolution: B
- Sagittarius A* is the supermassive black hole at the Galactic Center of the Milky Way. It is located near the border of the constellations Sagittarius and Scorpius, about 5.6° south of the ecliptic,visually close to the Butterfly Cluster (M6) and Lambda Scorpii.
- On May 12, 2022, the Event Horizon Telescope Collaboration, for the first time, released an image of Sagittarius A*, based on radio interferometer data taken in 2017, which confirms that the object contains a black hole.
-
Question 20 of 30
1 points
FSSAI has launched a mass media campaign “Heart Attack Rewind”- a 30-second Public Service Announcement (PSA) with the aim to create awareness about the harmful effects:
CorrectSolution: C
FSSAI has launched a mass media campaign “Heart Attack Rewind”- a 30-second Public Service Announcement (PSA) with the aim to create awareness about the harmful effects of trans fat by,
- Reducing acceptability of industrially produced (IP) trans fat in food
- Building public support for government action to eliminate IP trans fat and
- Leading consumers to the FSSAI website to seek more information about trans fat.
IncorrectSolution: C
FSSAI has launched a mass media campaign “Heart Attack Rewind”- a 30-second Public Service Announcement (PSA) with the aim to create awareness about the harmful effects of trans fat by,
- Reducing acceptability of industrially produced (IP) trans fat in food
- Building public support for government action to eliminate IP trans fat and
- Leading consumers to the FSSAI website to seek more information about trans fat.
-
Question 21 of 30
1 points
With reference to payment banks consider the following statements
- Payment banks accept demand deposits only i.e. savings and current accounts, not time deposits.
- The Payment Banks can set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities.
- It can take deposits upto ₹4 lakh per account and it can issue both debit & credit cards.
Which of the following statements are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
It can accept demand deposits only i.e. savings and current accounts, not time deposits.The Payment Banks cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities.Payment banks can take deposits of ₹2 lakh per account and it can issue debit but not credit cards.
IncorrectSolution: A
It can accept demand deposits only i.e. savings and current accounts, not time deposits.The Payment Banks cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities.Payment banks can take deposits of ₹2 lakh per account and it can issue debit but not credit cards.
-
Question 22 of 30
1 points
In the context of Merchant Discount Rate consider the following statements?
- MDR is the fees that a merchant have pay to his (acquirer) bank for every credit / debit card transaction made at his store.
- MDR fees is shared among 2 parties i.e customer‘s card issuing bank & merchant‘s acquiring bank only.
Which of the following statements are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
MDR is the fees that a merchant have pay to his (acquirer) bank for every credit / debit card transaction made at his store.
MDR fees is shared among 3 parties 1) customer‘s card issuing bank 2) merchant‘s acquiring bank 3) payment gateway provider.
IncorrectSolution: B
MDR is the fees that a merchant have pay to his (acquirer) bank for every credit / debit card transaction made at his store.
MDR fees is shared among 3 parties 1) customer‘s card issuing bank 2) merchant‘s acquiring bank 3) payment gateway provider.
-
Question 23 of 30
1 points
Stardust 1.0 is sometimes seen in news is ?
CorrectSolution: A
Solution: Stardust 1.0 is a LAUNCH VEHICLE suited for student and budget payloads
IncorrectSolution: A
Solution: Stardust 1.0 is a LAUNCH VEHICLE suited for student and budget payloads
-
Question 24 of 30
1 points
With regarding to Ploonet consider the following statements?
- When the moons of exoplanets break away from their own orbits & act like a planet, are called as “Ploonet.”
- There are many of these planets in our solar system which are inhabitable
Which of the following statements are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Solution : When the moons of exoplanets break away from their own orbits & act like a planet, are called as “Ploonet.” There are none of these planets in our solar system
IncorrectSolution: A
Solution : When the moons of exoplanets break away from their own orbits & act like a planet, are called as “Ploonet.” There are none of these planets in our solar system
-
Question 25 of 30
1 points
With reference to Anthurium consider the following statements?
- Anthurium is domestic flowering plant known for purifying surrounding air
- Anthrium is known to remove chemicals like formaldehyde, ammonia,
toluene, xylene and allergens.
Which of the following statements are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Solution: Anthurium is domestic flowering plant known for purifying surrounding air Anthrium is known to remove chemicals like formaldehyde, ammonia, toluene, xylene and allergens.
IncorrectSolution: C
Solution: Anthurium is domestic flowering plant known for purifying surrounding air Anthrium is known to remove chemicals like formaldehyde, ammonia, toluene, xylene and allergens.
-
Question 26 of 30
1 points
A certain amount of money has been divided between two persons P and Q in the ratio 3 : 5. But it was divided in the ratio of 2 : 3 and thereby Q loses Rs. 10. What was the amount?
CorrectSolution : d
Let the amount be Rs. x.
In first condition, Q’s part = 5x/(5+3) = 5x/8
In second condition, Q’s part = 3x/(2+3) = 3x/5
By given condition, 5x/8 – 3x/5 = 10
x/40 = 10
x = Rs. 400
IncorrectSolution : d
Let the amount be Rs. x.
In first condition, Q’s part = 5x/(5+3) = 5x/8
In second condition, Q’s part = 3x/(2+3) = 3x/5
By given condition, 5x/8 – 3x/5 = 10
x/40 = 10
x = Rs. 400
-
Question 27 of 30
1 points
If x varies as the mth power of y, y varies as nth power of z and x varies as the pth power of z, then which one of the following is correct?
CorrectSolution : c
x ∝ ym ……(i)
y ∝ zn ……(ii)
x ∝ zp ……(iii)
On putting the values of x and y from Eqs. (ii) and (iii) in Eq. (i),
we get zp (zn)m
z p zmn
p = mn
IncorrectSolution : c
x ∝ ym ……(i)
y ∝ zn ……(ii)
x ∝ zp ……(iii)
On putting the values of x and y from Eqs. (ii) and (iii) in Eq. (i),
we get zp (zn)m
z p zmn
p = mn
-
Question 28 of 30
1 points
The ratio between the ages of A and B is 2 : 5. After 8 yr, their ages will be in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the difference between their present ages?
CorrectSolution : c
Let the ages of A and B be 2x and 5x yr respectively.
By given condition, (2x + 8)/(5x + 8) = 4x + 16 = 5x + 8 x => 8
Hence, Difference between their present ages = 5x – 2x = 3x
= 3 × 8 = 24 yr.IncorrectSolution : c
Let the ages of A and B be 2x and 5x yr respectively.
By given condition, (2x + 8)/(5x + 8) = 4x + 16 = 5x + 8 x => 8
Hence, Difference between their present ages = 5x – 2x = 3x
= 3 × 8 = 24 yr. -
Question 29 of 30
1 points
A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5 : 1. On adding 5 L of water, the ratio of milk and water becomes 5 : 2. What is the quantity of milk in the original mixture?
CorrectSolution : b
Let quantities of milk and water be 5x and x L respectively.
By given condition,
5x/(x + 5) = 5/2
10x = 5x + 25
5x = 25
X = 5
Hence, the quantity of milk in the original mixture = 5 × 5 = 25 L.
IncorrectSolution : b
Let quantities of milk and water be 5x and x L respectively.
By given condition,
5x/(x + 5) = 5/2
10x = 5x + 25
5x = 25
X = 5
Hence, the quantity of milk in the original mixture = 5 × 5 = 25 L.
-
Question 30 of 30
1 points
The wages of labourers in a factory has increased in the ratio 22 : 25 and their number decreased in the ratio 3 : 2. What was the original wage bill of the factory, if the present bill is Rs. 5000?
CorrectSolution : d
Let initial salary = Rs. 22x
and final salary = Rs. 25x
Let initial number of employees = 3y
and final number of employees = 2y
Hence, Present bill = Final salary × Final number of employees
5000 = 25x × 2y
5000/50 = xy
xy = 100.
Hence, Original bill = Initial salary × Initial number of employees
22x × 3y = 66xy
66 × 100 = Rs. 6600
IncorrectSolution : d
Let initial salary = Rs. 22x
and final salary = Rs. 25x
Let initial number of employees = 3y
and final number of employees = 2y
Hence, Present bill = Final salary × Final number of employees
5000 = 25x × 2y
5000/50 = xy
xy = 100.
Hence, Original bill = Initial salary × Initial number of employees
22x × 3y = 66xy
66 × 100 = Rs. 6600
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates
Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Motivational and New analysis videos
[ad_2]