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Puucho CURRENT Affairs RTM – 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements:
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- A Uniform Civil Code is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters.
- Article 43 is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy is not enforceable by any court but the principles laid down therein are fundamental in governance.
- The duty of the state is greater in other directive principles than in Article 44 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: A Uniform Civil Code is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc.
- S2: Article 44 is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. These, as defined in Article 37, are not justiciable (not enforceable by any court) but the principles laid down therein are fundamental in governance.
- S3: Article 43 mentions “state shall endeavour by suitable legislation”, while the phrase “by suitable legislation” is absent in Article 44. All this implies that the duty of the state is greater in other directive principles than in Article 44.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/the-goa-civil-code/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: A Uniform Civil Code is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc.
- S2: Article 44 is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. These, as defined in Article 37, are not justiciable (not enforceable by any court) but the principles laid down therein are fundamental in governance.
- S3: Article 43 mentions “state shall endeavour by suitable legislation”, while the phrase “by suitable legislation” is absent in Article 44. All this implies that the duty of the state is greater in other directive principles than in Article 44.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/the-goa-civil-code/
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Question 2 of 10
1 points
Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Act, 2021?
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- It extends the upper limit for medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks from 20 weeks, for certain categories of women.
- The opinion of a registered medical practitioner, eligible as per the rules is required for the termination of pregnancy at different gestation ages up to 20 weeks.
- The opinion for medical termination of pregnancy beyond twenty weeks gestation period will be given by a medical board duly constituted by the respective state government or UT administration at approved facilities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021
- The Act amends the 1971 MTP law which regulates the conditions under which medical termination of pregnancy is to be pursued. The amended MTP Act extends the upper limit for medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks from 20 weeks, for certain categories of women.
- S2: The opinion of a registered medical practitioner, eligible as per the rules is required for the termination of pregnancy at different gestation ages up to 20 weeks. Opinion of two registered medical practitioners is required for termination of pregnancy beyond twenty weeks till twenty-four weeks of gestation period.
- S3: The opinion for medical termination of pregnancy beyond twenty-four weeks gestation period will be given by a medical board duly constituted by the respective state government or UT administration at approved facilities. Two registered medical practitioners eligible as per the MTP rules will perform the termination of pregnancy based on the decision of the medical board.
- The rules stipulate that the medical board will have the power to allow or deny termination of pregnancy beyond twenty-four weeks of gestation period only after due consideration and ensuring that the procedure would be safe for the woman at that gestation age and whether the foetal malformation has substantial risk of it being incompatible with life or if the child is born it may suffer from serious physical or mental abnormalities.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/legal-status-of-abortion-in-india/
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021
- The Act amends the 1971 MTP law which regulates the conditions under which medical termination of pregnancy is to be pursued. The amended MTP Act extends the upper limit for medical termination of pregnancy to 24 weeks from 20 weeks, for certain categories of women.
- S2: The opinion of a registered medical practitioner, eligible as per the rules is required for the termination of pregnancy at different gestation ages up to 20 weeks. Opinion of two registered medical practitioners is required for termination of pregnancy beyond twenty weeks till twenty-four weeks of gestation period.
- S3: The opinion for medical termination of pregnancy beyond twenty-four weeks gestation period will be given by a medical board duly constituted by the respective state government or UT administration at approved facilities. Two registered medical practitioners eligible as per the MTP rules will perform the termination of pregnancy based on the decision of the medical board.
- The rules stipulate that the medical board will have the power to allow or deny termination of pregnancy beyond twenty-four weeks of gestation period only after due consideration and ensuring that the procedure would be safe for the woman at that gestation age and whether the foetal malformation has substantial risk of it being incompatible with life or if the child is born it may suffer from serious physical or mental abnormalities.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/legal-status-of-abortion-in-india/
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Question 3 of 10
1 points
The Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update report was recently issued by
CorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- The Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update report was recently issued by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).
- The annual update harnesses the expertise of internationally acclaimed climate scientists and the best prediction systems from leading climate centres around the world to produce actionable information for decision-makers.
Refer:” https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/wmo-global-annual-to-decadal-climate-update/
IncorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- The Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update report was recently issued by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).
- The annual update harnesses the expertise of internationally acclaimed climate scientists and the best prediction systems from leading climate centres around the world to produce actionable information for decision-makers.
Refer:” https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/wmo-global-annual-to-decadal-climate-update/
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Question 4 of 10
1 points
Odessa is a port city, located on the
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Question 5 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana:
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- It is a scheme of the Ministry of Rural Development for providing LPG connections to Rural Masses.
- A deposit-free LPG connection is given to eligible with financial assistance of Rs 1,600 per connection by the Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is a scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gasfor providing LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households.
- Launched in May 2016.
- Aim: To provide LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) connections to poor households and reduce health risk associated with burning biomass.
- Key features: A deposit-free LPG connection is given to eligible with financial assistance of Rs 1,600 per connection by the Centre.
- Achievement: Government data shows that by January 2022, 9 crore new LPG connections had been rolled out under this scheme, and that 99.8 per cent of the over 28 crore households in India now have access to LPG, up from 61.9 per cent in 2015.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-may-2022/
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is a scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gasfor providing LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households.
- Launched in May 2016.
- Aim: To provide LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) connections to poor households and reduce health risk associated with burning biomass.
- Key features: A deposit-free LPG connection is given to eligible with financial assistance of Rs 1,600 per connection by the Centre.
- Achievement: Government data shows that by January 2022, 9 crore new LPG connections had been rolled out under this scheme, and that 99.8 per cent of the over 28 crore households in India now have access to LPG, up from 61.9 per cent in 2015.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-may-2022/
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Question 6 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements about the Great Indian Bustard:
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- It is among the heaviest of the flying omnivorous bird.
- It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List.
- It is protected under Wildlife Protection Act 1972 of India.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: The great Indian bustard is omnivorous. Also it is large bird with a horizontal body and long bare legs, giving it an ostrich like appearance, this bird is among the heaviest of the flying birds.
- IUCN status: critically endangered.
- Listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and in the CMS Convention and in Appendix I of CITES.
- Identified as one of the species for the recovery programme under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats of the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
- Project Great Indian Bustard — state of Rajasthan — identifying and fencing off bustard breeding grounds in existing protected areas as well as provide secure breeding enclosures in areas outside protected areas.
- Protected areas: Desert National Park Sanctuary — Rajasthan, Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary – Andhra Pradesh and Karera Wildlife Sanctuary– Madhya Pradesh.
- Habitats in India:
- Only two districts in Rajasthan — Jaisalmer and Barmer — have a breeding GIB population in the wild. The bird can also be found in very small numbers in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-may-2022/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- S1: The great Indian bustard is omnivorous. Also it is large bird with a horizontal body and long bare legs, giving it an ostrich like appearance, this bird is among the heaviest of the flying birds.
- IUCN status: critically endangered.
- Listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and in the CMS Convention and in Appendix I of CITES.
- Identified as one of the species for the recovery programme under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats of the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
- Project Great Indian Bustard — state of Rajasthan — identifying and fencing off bustard breeding grounds in existing protected areas as well as provide secure breeding enclosures in areas outside protected areas.
- Protected areas: Desert National Park Sanctuary — Rajasthan, Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary – Andhra Pradesh and Karera Wildlife Sanctuary– Madhya Pradesh.
- Habitats in India:
- Only two districts in Rajasthan — Jaisalmer and Barmer — have a breeding GIB population in the wild. The bird can also be found in very small numbers in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.
Refer: Facts for Prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/05/13/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-13-may-2022/
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Question 7 of 10
1 points
With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
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- It is spread over two districts.
- There is no human habitation inside the Park.
- It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Question 8 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements about the Archaeological Survey of India:
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- It was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham.
- It works under the aegis of Ministry of Culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Question 9 of 10
1 points
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
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- In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
- In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
- AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
- VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2 have been interchanged. Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, S3 is also correct. Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, S4 is correct.
- See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_reality and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augmented_reality
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2 have been interchanged. Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information. So, S3 is also correct. Virtual Reality (VR) is the use of computer technology to create a simulated environment. Unlike traditional user interfaces, VR places the user inside an experience. Instead of viewing a screen in front of them, users are immersed and able to interact with 3D worlds. So, S4 is correct.
- See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_reality and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augmented_reality
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
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Question 10 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
- an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
- used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.
- an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- There is a difference between digital signatures and digital certificates.
- A digital signature is an electronic method of signing an electronic document whereas a Digital Certificate is a computer based record which
- Identifies the Certifying Authority issuing it.
- Has the name or the identity of its subscriber.
- Contains the subscriber’s public key.
- Is digitally signed by the Certifying Authority issuing it.
- S1:So, digital signatures are NOT a record, and the identification of certifying authority is ascertained from the digital certificate, not digital signature. S1 is wrong.
- S2 and S3:A Digital certificate is a form of an electronic credential for the Internet. Similar to a driver’s license, employee ID card, a Digital certificate is issued by a trusted third party to establish the identity of the certificate holder. The third party who issues the Digital Certificate is known as the Certifying Authority (CA).
- Digital Signatures provide Authentication, Privacy, Non repudiation and Integrity in the virtual world. IT Act 2000 in India gives legal validity to electronic transactions that are digitally signed. Therefore we need digital signatures for secure messaging, online banking applications, online workflow applications, e-tendering, supply chain management etc.
- Digital Certificates are digital documents attesting to the binding of a public key to an individual or specific entity. They allow verification of the claim that a specific public key does in fact belong to a specific individual. Digital Certificates help prevent someone from using a phony key to impersonate someone else.
See http://www.ntrade.in/epc_dgft/faq001.html#01
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- There is a difference between digital signatures and digital certificates.
- A digital signature is an electronic method of signing an electronic document whereas a Digital Certificate is a computer based record which
- Identifies the Certifying Authority issuing it.
- Has the name or the identity of its subscriber.
- Contains the subscriber’s public key.
- Is digitally signed by the Certifying Authority issuing it.
- S1:So, digital signatures are NOT a record, and the identification of certifying authority is ascertained from the digital certificate, not digital signature. S1 is wrong.
- S2 and S3:A Digital certificate is a form of an electronic credential for the Internet. Similar to a driver’s license, employee ID card, a Digital certificate is issued by a trusted third party to establish the identity of the certificate holder. The third party who issues the Digital Certificate is known as the Certifying Authority (CA).
- Digital Signatures provide Authentication, Privacy, Non repudiation and Integrity in the virtual world. IT Act 2000 in India gives legal validity to electronic transactions that are digitally signed. Therefore we need digital signatures for secure messaging, online banking applications, online workflow applications, e-tendering, supply chain management etc.
- Digital Certificates are digital documents attesting to the binding of a public key to an individual or specific entity. They allow verification of the claim that a specific public key does in fact belong to a specific individual. Digital Certificates help prevent someone from using a phony key to impersonate someone else.
See http://www.ntrade.in/epc_dgft/faq001.html#01
Refer: UPSC CSE 2019
- Option A: Gharials inhabit deep freshwater habitats, not both freshwater and saltwater habitats as inhabited by crocodile species. So, A is ruled out. Option A is the home of saltwater crocodile.
- Option B: Gharials can be naturally found in National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary.
- The gharial is one of three crocodilians native to India, the other two being the mugger crocodile and the saltwater crocodile.
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