DAY – 53 (InstaTest-53): Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2022: Topic – Polity, Tests 35 , August &September 2021 CA – INSIGHTSIAS

Solution: B

Features of Charter Act of 1833:

It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.

It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.

It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.

Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.

Solution: D

Both the statements are correct.

Solution: A

Features of Government of India Act of 1919

• It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
• It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
• It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.

Solution: B

Simon Commission In November 1927 itself (i.e., 2 years before the schedule), the British Government announced the appointment a seven-member statutory commission under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon to report on the condition of India under its new Constitution.

All the members of the commission were British and hence, all the parties boycotted the commission.

The commission submitted its report in 1930 and recommended

• The abolition of dyarchy.
• extension of responsible government in the provinces,
• Establishment of a federation of British India.
• Princely states, continuation of communal electorate and so on. To consider the proposals of the commission, the British Government convened three round table conferences of the representatives of the British
  Government, British India and Indian princely states.

Solution: D

The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.

The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.

Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.

Seats were allotted on the basis of population at that time.

Solution: A

Protection of Interests of Minorities

Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. Further, no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language. The first provision protects the right of a group while the second provision guarantees the right of a citizen as an individual irrespective of the community to which he belongs.

Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. However, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only, as it is commonly assumed to be. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

This is because of the use of words ‘section of citizens’ in the Article that include minorities as well as majority.

The Supreme Court also held that the right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Hence, the political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Solution: C

Quo-Warranto

In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.

The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution: B

Martial Law

1. It affects only Fundamental Rights. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
2. It suspends the government and ordinary law courts.

3. It is imposed to restore the breakdown of law and order due to any reason.
4. It is imposed in some specific area of the country.

National Emergency

1. It affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre-state relations, distribution of revenues and legislative powers between centre and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament.

2. It continues the government and ordinary law courts.
3. I t can be imposed only on three grounds–war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
4. It is imposed either in the whole country or in any part of it.

Solution: D

All the above statements are correct.

Originally, the right to property was one of the seven fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution. It was dealt by Article 19(1) (f) and Article 31. Article 19(1)(f) guaranteed to every citizen the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property. Article 31, on the other hand, guaranteed to every person, whether citizen or non-citizen, right against deprivation of his property. It provided that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. It empowered the State to acquire or requisition the property of a person on two conditions:

(a) it should be for public purpose, and

(b) it should provide for payment of compensation (amount) to the owner.

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1) (f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading ‘Right to Property’. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal right or a constitutional right, though no longer a fundamental right. It is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

The right to property as a legal right (as distinct from the Fundamental Rights) has the following implications:

(a) It can be regulated ie, curtailed, abridged or modified without constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.

(b) It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action.

(c) In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move the Supreme Court under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for its enforcement. He can move the High Court under Article 226.

(d) No guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition of the private property by the state.

Solution: A

• Lengthiest Written Constitution
• Drawn From Various Sources
• Blend of Rigidity and Flexibility
• Federal System with Unitary Bias
• Synthesis of Parliamentary Sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy
• Integrated and Independent Judiciary
• Three tier government.

Solution: A

The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.

Article 1, on the other, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation.

That’s why, Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K C Wheare.

Solution: C

Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.

Features of the Act

1. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings.
2. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
3. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and three other judges.
4. It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’.
5. It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.

Pitt’s India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the company.

Charter Act of 1853 introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council.

Solution: D

The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at
the Centre but also in the states. The features of parliamentary government in India are:

(a) Presence of nominal and real executives;
(b) Majority party rule,
(c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
(d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
(e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
(f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

Solution: D

All the statements given above are correct.

The Supreme Court is a federal court, the highest court of appeal, the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens and the guardian of the Constitution. Hence, the Constitution has made various provisions to ensure its independence—security of tenure of the judges, fixed service conditions for the judges, all the expenses of the Supreme Court charged on the Consolidated

Fund of India, prohibition on discussion on the conduct of judges in the legislatures, ban on practice after retirement, power to punish for its contempt vested in the Supreme Court, separation of the judiciary from the
executive, and so on

Solution: B

Fundamental duties

According to Article 51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:

(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;

(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;

(c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;

(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;

(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture; Hence, option (b) is correct.

(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures;

(h) to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;

(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and

(k) to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

Solution: C

Solution:

• A habitat suitability study of the golden langur, a primate that is endemic to Assam in India and the bordering country of Bhutan, projects that only 13% of the current habitat will be suitable for the species by 2031. At present, 18% of the current habitat range of 66,320 square kilometres across the transboundary region is suitable for the species.
• Increasing habitat fragmentation and isolation across its range, especially in Assam, poses a danger to the golden langur, a primate species. Less than 8,000 individuals remain in the wild today in India and Bhutan; in India 80% of this population is outside protected areas.

Solution: C

Solution:

• The “Green Grids Initiative” at the COP26 climate talks in Glasgow, Scotland, was backed by more than 80 countries and could set a model for how rich countries help poorer ones to reduce their emissions and meet the goal of capping global warming at 1.5 degrees Celsius (2.7 Fahrenheit) above pre-industrial norms.
• The UK and India are planning to improve connections between the world’s electricity power grids.

Solution: D

Solution:

• The S-400 is a mobile long-range surface-to-air missile (LR-SAM) system developed by Almaz-Antey, a Russian state-owned enterprise. It possesses the capability to take down multiple aerial targets including stealth fighter jets, bombers, cruise and ballistic missiles, and even unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs).
• The USA is considering imposing sanctions on India.

Solution: C

Solution:

• The Five Eyes (FVEY) is an intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. These countries are parties to the multilateral UKUSA Agreement, a treaty for joint cooperation in signals intelligence.

Solution: C

Solution:

• AUKUS is a trilateral security pact between Australia, the United Kingdom, and the United States, announced on 15 September 2021 for the Indo-Pacific region.Under the pact, the US and the UK will help Australia to acquire nuclear-powered submarines.
• French foreign minister Jean-Yves Le Drian called the pact a “stab in the back” following Australia’s cancellation of a French–Australian submarine deal worth €56 billion (A$90 billion) without notice,ending efforts to develop a deeper strategic partnership between France and Australia.
• The pact also includes cooperation on “cyber capabilities, artificial intelligence, quantum technologies and additional undersea capabilities”.

Solution: A

Solution: Rudram – 1 is  a Anti Radiation Missile

Solution: C

Solution: Five Tejas aircraft will fly to the U.K., to participate in the event. The Cobra Warrior exercise is an apex event organised by the Royal Air Force of United Kingdom The exercise is for training the pilots and others in planning and executing complex airborne mission.Five Tejas aircraft will fly to the U.K., to participate in the event

Solution: B

The Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC) 1, which will be called INS Vikrant once it enters service with the Indian Navy.  This is the first aircraft carrier designed and built in India.

Solution: A

Solution: The idea is to improve connectivity and convenience for commuters, besides promoting tourism. The scheme is being presently started in regions like Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Jammu & Kashmir and the other North Eastern states. Nodal Ministry : Ministry of Road Transport and Highways .

Solution : C

Solution: It is a small deposit scheme for the girl child launched as a part of the “Beti Bachao Beti Padhao‟ campaign.  A Sukanya Samriddhi Account can be opened any time after the birth of a girl till she turns 10, To Meet The Requirement Of Her Higher Education Expenses, Partial Withdrawal Of 50% Of The Balance Is Allowed After She Turns 18. 

Answer : b

Quantity of alcohol in 5 L of solution

= (40/100 )´5 = 2L

Quantity of alcohol in 6 L of solution = 2 L

Strength of alcohol in new solution

=[(2/6)´100)% = 33(1/3)%

Answer : a

Assume he bought 20 apples each. Net investment =Rs. 5+Rs. 4 = Rs. 9 for 40 apples. He would sell 40 apples @ (40´2)/9 = Rs. 8.888

Loss of Rs. 0.111 on Rs. 9 investment

Loss percentage = 1.23%

Answer : a

Comparisons have to be made between :

192´34, 198´33, 204´32 and 210 ´31 for the highest product amongst them.

The highest value of revenue is seen at a price of Rs. 198.

Sol. (b)

Passage mentions that Article 25 in-builts all people are entitled to Right to firmly practice religion but is subject to public order, morality, etc. Hence, the most logical inference is question of religion freedom is open to state intervention, therefore, option (b) is the most correct choice here.