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INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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Question 1 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Committee on Public Undertakings
- This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
- The members of the committee who are from the Lok Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
- The term of office of the members is co terminus with the tenure of Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Committee on Public Undertakings
This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee. Originally, it had 15 members (10from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the Lok Sabhaand 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members of this committee are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office of the members is one year.
A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
IncorrectSolution: A
Committee on Public Undertakings
This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee. Originally, it had 15 members (10from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the Lok Sabhaand 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members of this committee are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office of the members is one year.
A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
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Question 2 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding financial bill (II)
- A financial bill (II)is a bill that contains not only any or all the matters mentioned in Article 110, but also other matters of general legislation.
- The special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House for the consideration of the bill.
- In case of a disagreement between the two Houses over such a bill, the president can summon a joint sitting of the two Houses to resolve the deadlock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Financial Bills (I)
A financial bill (I) is a bill that contains not only any or all the matters mentioned in Article 110, but also other matters of general legislation.
Financial Bills (II)
A financial bill (II) contains provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, but does not include any of the matters mentioned in Article 110. It is treated as an ordinary bill and in all respects, it is governed by the same legislative procedure which is applicable to an ordinary bill. The only special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration of the bill.
IncorrectSolution: B
Financial Bills (I)
A financial bill (I) is a bill that contains not only any or all the matters mentioned in Article 110, but also other matters of general legislation.
Financial Bills (II)
A financial bill (II) contains provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, but does not include any of the matters mentioned in Article 110. It is treated as an ordinary bill and in all respects, it is governed by the same legislative procedure which is applicable to an ordinary bill. The only special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration of the bill.
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Question 3 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding grants
- Exceptional Grant is for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year.
- Excess Grant is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted in Budget.
- Token Grant is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by re-appropriation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Various grants are made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special circumstances:
Supplementary Grant
It is granted when the amount authorized by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.
Additional Grant
It is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year.
Excess Grant
It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Vote of Credit
It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha.
Exceptional Grant
It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
Token Grant
It is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by re-appropriation. A demand for the grant of a token sum (of Re 1) is submitted to the vote of the Lok Sabha and if assented, funds are made available.
IncorrectSolution: A
Various grants are made by the Parliament under extraordinary or special circumstances:
Supplementary Grant
It is granted when the amount authorized by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.
Additional Grant
It is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year.
Excess Grant
It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
Vote of Credit
It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha.
Exceptional Grant
It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
Token Grant
It is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by re-appropriation. A demand for the grant of a token sum (of Re 1) is submitted to the vote of the Lok Sabha and if assented, funds are made available.
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Question 4 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Tribunals
1.While Article 323 A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323 B contemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters.
- While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323 B can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures.
- Under Article 323 A, there is no question of hierarchy of tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles–Article 323A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters.
Article 323 A empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Centre, the states, local bodies, public corporations and other public authorities. In other words, Article 323 A enables the Parliament to take out the adjudication of disputes relating to service matters from the civil courts and high courts and place it before the administrative ribunals.
IncorrectSolution: D
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled as ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles–Article 323A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters.
Article 323 A empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Centre, the states, local bodies, public corporations and other public authorities. In other words, Article 323 A enables the Parliament to take out the adjudication of disputes relating to service matters from the civil courts and high courts and place it before the administrative ribunals.
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Question 5 of 30
1 points
Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution is/are amended by Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States
- Goods and Services Tax Council
- Representation of states in Parliament
- Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: A
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special
majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
(a) Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament,
(b) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament, and
(c) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of
half of the state legislatures.By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States
- Election of the President and its manner.
- Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
- Supreme Court and high courts.
- Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
- Goods and Services Tax Council.
- Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
- Representation of states in Parliament.
- Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).
IncorrectSolution: A
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special
majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
(a) Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament,
(b) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament, and
(c) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of
half of the state legislatures.By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States
- Election of the President and its manner.
- Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
- Supreme Court and high courts.
- Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
- Goods and Services Tax Council.
- Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
- Representation of states in Parliament.
- Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).
-
Question 6 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Financial Emergency
- A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
- Once approved by Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Grounds of Declaration
Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is not beyond judicial review.
Parliamentary Approval and Duration
A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. However, if the proclamation of Financial Emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.
Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
- there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
- repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
While the proclamation of financial emergency (under Article 360) is in operation, the Centre can give directions to the states:
(i) to observe the specified canons of financial propriety;
(ii) to reduce the salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in the state (including the high court judges); and
(iii) to reserve all money bills and other financial bills for the consideration of the President.
No Financial Emergency has been declared so far, though there was a
financial crisis in 1991.IncorrectSolution: B
Grounds of Declaration
Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is not beyond judicial review.
Parliamentary Approval and Duration
A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. However, if the proclamation of Financial Emergency is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.
Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
- there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
- repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
While the proclamation of financial emergency (under Article 360) is in operation, the Centre can give directions to the states:
(i) to observe the specified canons of financial propriety;
(ii) to reduce the salaries and allowances of all class of persons serving in the state (including the high court judges); and
(iii) to reserve all money bills and other financial bills for the consideration of the President.
No Financial Emergency has been declared so far, though there was a
financial crisis in 1991. -
Question 7 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding the election of the President of India
- The President is elected by an Electoral College in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
- Members of the Electoral College are bound by party whips.
- Electoral College consists of all the members of both Houses of Parliament and all the members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
The President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry. [Article 54 of the Constitution of India]
The President shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office. He shall, however, continue to hold office notwithstanding the expiry of his term, until his successor enters upon his office. [Article 56 of the Constitution of India]
Under the provisions of sub-section (3) of Section 4 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, the notification calling the election to the office of the President can be issued by the Election Commission on any day within the period of sixty days before the expiry of the term of office of the outgoing President. The election schedule shall be so fixed, that the President-elect is able to enter upon his office on the day following the expiry of the term of the outgoing President.
As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot.
Are the provisions of the Anti-Defection Law applicable in Presidential elections?
No. Members of the Electoral College can vote according to their wish and are not bound by any party whips. The voting is by secret ballot. Therefore, Party whip does not apply in this election.
All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are
inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. The election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that theelectoral college was incomplete (ie, existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college). If the election of a person as President is
declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force.IncorrectSolution: A
The President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry. [Article 54 of the Constitution of India]
The President shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office. He shall, however, continue to hold office notwithstanding the expiry of his term, until his successor enters upon his office. [Article 56 of the Constitution of India]
Under the provisions of sub-section (3) of Section 4 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, the notification calling the election to the office of the President can be issued by the Election Commission on any day within the period of sixty days before the expiry of the term of office of the outgoing President. The election schedule shall be so fixed, that the President-elect is able to enter upon his office on the day following the expiry of the term of the outgoing President.
As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot.
Are the provisions of the Anti-Defection Law applicable in Presidential elections?
No. Members of the Electoral College can vote according to their wish and are not bound by any party whips. The voting is by secret ballot. Therefore, Party whip does not apply in this election.
All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are
inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. The election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that theelectoral college was incomplete (ie, existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college). If the election of a person as President is
declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force. -
Question 8 of 30
1 points
Which of the following veto powers is/are vested with President of India?
- Qualified veto
- Suspensive veto
- Absolute veto
- Pocket veto
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: B
A bill passed by the Parliament can become an act only if it receives the
assent of the President. When such a bill is presented to the President for his
assent, he has three alternatives (under Article 111 of the Constitution):- He may give his assent to the bill, or
2. He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
3. He may return the bill (if it is not a Money bill) for reconsideration of the
Parliament. However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or
without amendments and again presented to the President, the President
must give his assent to the bill.
Thus, the President has the veto power over the bills passed by the
Parliament, that is, he can withhold his assent to the bills. The object of
conferring this power on the President is two-fold—(a) to prevent hasty and
ill-considered legislation by the Parliament; and (b) to prevent a legislation
which may be unconstitutional.The veto power enjoyed by the executive in modern states can be classified into the following four types:
- Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
- Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
- Suspensive veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
- Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.
Of the above four, the President of India is vested with three– absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President; it is possessed by the American President.
IncorrectSolution: B
A bill passed by the Parliament can become an act only if it receives the
assent of the President. When such a bill is presented to the President for his
assent, he has three alternatives (under Article 111 of the Constitution):- He may give his assent to the bill, or
2. He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
3. He may return the bill (if it is not a Money bill) for reconsideration of the
Parliament. However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or
without amendments and again presented to the President, the President
must give his assent to the bill.
Thus, the President has the veto power over the bills passed by the
Parliament, that is, he can withhold his assent to the bills. The object of
conferring this power on the President is two-fold—(a) to prevent hasty and
ill-considered legislation by the Parliament; and (b) to prevent a legislation
which may be unconstitutional.The veto power enjoyed by the executive in modern states can be classified into the following four types:
- Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
- Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
- Suspensive veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
- Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.
Of the above four, the President of India is vested with three– absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President; it is possessed by the American President.
-
Question 9 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding the Qualifications of High court Judge
- He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years.
- He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for seven years.
- The Constitution has prescribed a minimum age of 35 years for appointment as a judge of a high court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice
and such other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary
to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high
court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the
President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending
upon its workload.The judges of a high court are appointed by the President. The chief justice is appointed by the President after consultation with the chief justice of India and the governor of the state concerned. For appointment of other judges, the chief justice of the concerned high court is also consulted. In case of a common high court for two or more states, the governors of all the states concerned are consulted by the president
Qualifications of Judges
A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (a) He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years; or
(b) He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for ten years.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court. Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.
IncorrectSolution: A
Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice
and such other judges as the president may from time to time deem necessary
to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high
court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the
President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending
upon its workload.The judges of a high court are appointed by the President. The chief justice is appointed by the President after consultation with the chief justice of India and the governor of the state concerned. For appointment of other judges, the chief justice of the concerned high court is also consulted. In case of a common high court for two or more states, the governors of all the states concerned are consulted by the president
Qualifications of Judges
A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following qualifications:
- He should be a citizen of India.
- (a) He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years; or
(b) He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for ten years.
From the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court. Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.
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Question 10 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding appointment of the Chief Minister.
- The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
- The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor. However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister.
The governor may have to exercise his individual judgment in the selection and appointement of the Chief Minister when the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor.
However, on the death of a Chief Minister, the ruling party usually elects a new leader and the governor has no choice but to appoint him as Chief Minister.
The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period. This is what has been done in a number of cases.
IncorrectSolution: C
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor. However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister.
The governor may have to exercise his individual judgment in the selection and appointement of the Chief Minister when the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor.
However, on the death of a Chief Minister, the ruling party usually elects a new leader and the governor has no choice but to appoint him as Chief Minister.
The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period. This is what has been done in a number of cases.
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Question 11 of 30
1 points
Which of the following is the objective of PM-AASHA:
CorrectSolution: D
Solution:
An umbrella scheme has been initiated to further ensure remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce, namely Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA).
Following are the key components of the Scheme:
- Price Support Scheme (PSS): In Price Support Scheme PSS, physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and Copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State governments.
- Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS): Under PDPS, direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/modal price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling his produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process.
- Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS): In addition to PDPS, it has been decided that for oilseeds, states have the option to roll out Private Procurement Stockist Scheme (PPSS) on pilot basis in selected district/APMC(s) of district involving the participation of private stockist.
IncorrectSolution: D
Solution:
An umbrella scheme has been initiated to further ensure remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce, namely Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA).
Following are the key components of the Scheme:
- Price Support Scheme (PSS): In Price Support Scheme PSS, physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and Copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State governments.
- Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS): Under PDPS, direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/modal price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling his produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process.
- Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS): In addition to PDPS, it has been decided that for oilseeds, states have the option to roll out Private Procurement Stockist Scheme (PPSS) on pilot basis in selected district/APMC(s) of district involving the participation of private stockist.
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Question 12 of 30
1 points
Which of the following are the pillars of New Education Policy
- Access
- Equity
- International Exposure
- Accountability
- Affordability
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Solution:
IncorrectSolution: A
Solution:
-
Question 13 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements in the context of Stem Cells.
- They can divide over and over again to produce new cells.
- As they divide, they can change into the other types of cell that make up the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Solution:
- Stem cells are special human cells that are able to develop into many different cell types.
Two unique properties enable them to do this:
- They can divide over and over again to produce new cells.
- As they divide, they can change into the other types of cells that make up the body
IncorrectSolution: C
Solution:
- Stem cells are special human cells that are able to develop into many different cell types.
Two unique properties enable them to do this:
- They can divide over and over again to produce new cells.
- As they divide, they can change into the other types of cells that make up the body
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Question 14 of 30
1 points
India has Free Trade Agreements(FTA) with which of the following countries/ groupings:
- South Korea
- Japan
- European Union
- Australia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: A
Solution: India is in talks with the European Union, on signing FTA.
IncorrectSolution: A
Solution: India is in talks with the European Union, on signing FTA.
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Question 15 of 30
1 points
“Ashok Dalwai committee” sometimes seen in news is related to
CorrectSolution: C
Solution: Committee on doubling farmer’s income is headed by Ashok Dalwai .
IncorrectSolution: C
Solution: Committee on doubling farmer’s income is headed by Ashok Dalwai .
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Question 16 of 30
1 points
Which of these financial institutions is/are the specialized agencies of the United Nations (UN)?
- United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)
- International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
- The International Finance Corporation (IFC)
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Specialized agencies are autonomous organizations working with the United Nations. Specialized agencies may or may not have been originally created by the United Nations, but they are incorporated into the United Nations System by the United Nations Economic and Social Council. At present the UN has in total 15 specialized agencies that carry out various functions on behalf of the UN.
The specialized agencies are listed below:
- Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO);
- International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
- International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD).
- International Labour Organization (ILO).
- International Maritime Organization (IMO).
- International Monetary Fund (IMF).
- International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
- United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO).
- Universal Postal Union (UPU).
- World Bank Group (WBG).
- The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD),
- The International Finance Corporation (IFC),
- The International Development Association (IDA),
- World Health Organization (WHO).
- World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).
- World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
- World Tourism Organization (UNWTO).
Q Source: Insights compilations
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: Specialized agencies are autonomous organizations working with the United Nations. Specialized agencies may or may not have been originally created by the United Nations, but they are incorporated into the United Nations System by the United Nations Economic and Social Council. At present the UN has in total 15 specialized agencies that carry out various functions on behalf of the UN.
The specialized agencies are listed below:
- Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO);
- International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
- International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD).
- International Labour Organization (ILO).
- International Maritime Organization (IMO).
- International Monetary Fund (IMF).
- International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
- United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
- United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO).
- Universal Postal Union (UPU).
- World Bank Group (WBG).
- The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD),
- The International Finance Corporation (IFC),
- The International Development Association (IDA),
- World Health Organization (WHO).
- World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO).
- World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
- World Tourism Organization (UNWTO).
Q Source: Insights compilations
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Question 17 of 30
1 points
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) member nations include
- United States of America
- South Korea
- Australia
- Hong Kong
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: B
Solution:
Solution: d)
Justification: APEC’s 21 member economies are Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada; Chile; People’s Republic of China; Hong Kong, China; Indonesia; Japan; Republic of Korea; Malaysia; Mexico; New Zealand; Papua New Guinea; Peru; The Philippines; The Russian Federation; Singapore; Chinese Taipei; Thailand; United States of America; Viet Nam.
- APEC Members account for approximately 40% of the world’s population, approximately 54% of the world’s gross domestic product and about 44% of world trade
- APEC works to help all residents of the Asia-Pacific participate in the growing economy.
- APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad.
- Recognizing the impacts of climate change, APEC members also implement initiatives to increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources.
- The forum adapts to allow members to deal with important new challenges to the region’s economic well-being. This includes ensuring disaster resilience, planning for pandemics, and addressing terrorism.
Q Source: Insights compilations
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: APEC’s 21 member economies are Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada; Chile; People’s Republic of China; Hong Kong, China; Indonesia; Japan; Republic of Korea; Malaysia; Mexico; New Zealand; Papua New Guinea; Peru; The Philippines; The Russian Federation; Singapore; Chinese Taipei; Thailand; United States of America; Viet Nam.
- APEC Members account for approximately 40% of the world’s population, approximately 54% of the world’s gross domestic product and about 44% of world trade
- APEC works to help all residents of the Asia-Pacific participate in the growing economy.
- APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad.
- Recognizing the impacts of climate change, APEC members also implement initiatives to increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources.
- The forum adapts to allow members to deal with important new challenges to the region’s economic well-being. This includes ensuring disaster resilience, planning for pandemics, and addressing terrorism.
Q Source: Insights compilations
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Question 18 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements about the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL).
- The UNCITRAL is a subsidiary body of the General Assembly of the United Nations.
- UNICTRAL’s general mandate is to work on the harmonization and unification of the laws of international trade.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) (established in 1966) is a subsidiary body of the General Assembly of the United Nations with the general mandate to further the progressive harmonization and unification of the law of international trade.
UNCITRAL has since prepared a wide range of conventions, model laws and other instruments dealing with the substantive law that governs trade transactions or other aspects of business law which have an impact on international trade. UNCITRAL meets once a year, typically in summer, alternatively in New York and in Vienna.
Learning: “Harmonization” and “unification” of the law of international trade refers to the process through which the law facilitating international commerce is created and adopted. International commerce may be hindered by factors such as the lack of a predictable governing law or out-of-date laws unsuited to commercial practice. The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law identifies such problems and then carefully crafts solutions which are acceptable to States having different legal systems and levels of economic and social development.
- “Harmonization” may conceptually be thought of as the process through which domestic laws may be modified to enhance predictability in cross-border commercial transactions.
- “Unification” may be seen as the adoption by States of a common legal standard governing particular aspects of international business transactions.
- A model law or a legislative guide is an example of a text which is drafted to harmonize domestic law, while a convention is an international instrument which is adopted by States for the unification of the law at an international level.
- Texts resulting from the work of UNCITRAL include conventions, model laws, legal guides, legislative guides, rules, and practice notes. In practice, the two concepts are closely related.
Q Source: https://uncitral.un.org/en/about/faq/mandate_composition/history
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) (established in 1966) is a subsidiary body of the General Assembly of the United Nations with the general mandate to further the progressive harmonization and unification of the law of international trade.
UNCITRAL has since prepared a wide range of conventions, model laws and other instruments dealing with the substantive law that governs trade transactions or other aspects of business law which have an impact on international trade. UNCITRAL meets once a year, typically in summer, alternatively in New York and in Vienna.
Learning: “Harmonization” and “unification” of the law of international trade refers to the process through which the law facilitating international commerce is created and adopted. International commerce may be hindered by factors such as the lack of a predictable governing law or out-of-date laws unsuited to commercial practice. The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law identifies such problems and then carefully crafts solutions which are acceptable to States having different legal systems and levels of economic and social development.
- “Harmonization” may conceptually be thought of as the process through which domestic laws may be modified to enhance predictability in cross-border commercial transactions.
- “Unification” may be seen as the adoption by States of a common legal standard governing particular aspects of international business transactions.
- A model law or a legislative guide is an example of a text which is drafted to harmonize domestic law, while a convention is an international instrument which is adopted by States for the unification of the law at an international level.
- Texts resulting from the work of UNCITRAL include conventions, model laws, legal guides, legislative guides, rules, and practice notes. In practice, the two concepts are closely related.
Q Source: https://uncitral.un.org/en/about/faq/mandate_composition/history
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Question 19 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements.
- A state legislature can impose taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments.
- Presidential assent is always required for the introduction of taxes by a state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: A state legislature can impose taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments, sale or purchase of goods (other than newspapers) etc.
However, a tax imposed on the sale or purchase of goods declared by Parliament to be of special importance in inter-state trade and commerce is subject to the restrictions and conditions specified by the Parliament.
Presidential assent is not generally required for introduction of taxes by a state.
Q Source: Chapter 14: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: A state legislature can impose taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments, sale or purchase of goods (other than newspapers) etc.
However, a tax imposed on the sale or purchase of goods declared by Parliament to be of special importance in inter-state trade and commerce is subject to the restrictions and conditions specified by the Parliament.
Presidential assent is not generally required for introduction of taxes by a state.
Q Source: Chapter 14: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 20 of 30
1 points
The Arab League is a regional organization of countries in and around
- North Africa
- Horn of Africa
- Arabia
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The Arab League is a regional organization of Arab countries in and around North Africa, the Horn of Africa and Arabia.
The Arab League occupies an area spanning around 14 million km² and counts 22 members, and 4 observer states. The 22 members today include 3 of the largest African countries (Sudan, Algeria and Libya) and the largest country in the Middle East (Saudi Arabia).
Syria was suspended following the 2011 uprising, but its seat was later given to Syrian opposition.
It was founded in 1945. It aimed to be a regional organisation of Arab states with a focus to developing the economy, resolving disputes and coordinating political aims.
Q Source: International and Regional organizations
IncorrectSolution: a)
Learning: The Arab League is a regional organization of Arab countries in and around North Africa, the Horn of Africa and Arabia.
The Arab League occupies an area spanning around 14 million km² and counts 22 members, and 4 observer states. The 22 members today include 3 of the largest African countries (Sudan, Algeria and Libya) and the largest country in the Middle East (Saudi Arabia).
Syria was suspended following the 2011 uprising, but its seat was later given to Syrian opposition.
It was founded in 1945. It aimed to be a regional organisation of Arab states with a focus to developing the economy, resolving disputes and coordinating political aims.
Q Source: International and Regional organizations
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Question 21 of 30
1 points
Consider the following about New Educational Policy
1)Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education to be raised to 50% by 2025
2)Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) will be set up as a single umbrella body for the entire higher education
3)An autonomous body, the National Educational Technology Forum (NETF), will be created to provide a platform for the free exchange of ideas
Which of the above are correct?
CorrectANswer B
NEP 2020 aims to increase the Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education including vocational education from 26.3% (2018) to 50% by 2035
Higher Education Commission of India(HECI) will be set up as a single overarching umbrella body for the entire higher education, excluding medical and legal education.
IncorrectANswer B
NEP 2020 aims to increase the Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education including vocational education from 26.3% (2018) to 50% by 2035
Higher Education Commission of India(HECI) will be set up as a single overarching umbrella body for the entire higher education, excluding medical and legal education.
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Question 22 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements with reference to Logistics sector in India:
1)The logistics cost in India is considerably higher than that of developed economies
2)Railways accounts for more than 50 percent of all the freight transported in India
Which of the above are correct?
CorrectANswer D
India’s logistics cost is estimated to account somewhere between 13-14 percent of the GDP while it is 7-8 per cent for developed economies.
Road freight accounts for 54% and railways 33%,
IncorrectANswer D
India’s logistics cost is estimated to account somewhere between 13-14 percent of the GDP while it is 7-8 per cent for developed economies.
Road freight accounts for 54% and railways 33%,
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Question 23 of 30
1 points
The problem of international liquidity is related to the non-availability of
CorrectAnswer c
Hard currencies are widely accepted around the world as a form of payment for goods and services and may be preferred over the domestic currency.
The U.S. dollar stands out in particular as it enjoys status as the world’s foreign reserve currency. For this reason, many international transactions are done in U.S. dollars
IncorrectAnswer c
Hard currencies are widely accepted around the world as a form of payment for goods and services and may be preferred over the domestic currency.
The U.S. dollar stands out in particular as it enjoys status as the world’s foreign reserve currency. For this reason, many international transactions are done in U.S. dollars
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Question 24 of 30
1 points
Consider the following about Missile Technology Control Regime(MTCR)
1)It is a legally binding treaty on the members. It is a formal political grouping.
2)India is its member but China is not its member
Which of the above are correct?
CorrectAnswer B
The Missile Technology Control Regime is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal political understanding among 35 member states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology
With the accession of India, the current membership of MTCR is 35.
IncorrectAnswer B
The Missile Technology Control Regime is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal political understanding among 35 member states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology
With the accession of India, the current membership of MTCR is 35.
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Question 25 of 30
1 points
Consider the following about Nuclear Suppliers Group
1)It is concerned with reducing nuclear proliferation by controlling the export and re-transfer of materials that may be applicable to nuclear weapon development and by improving safeguards and protection on existing materials
2)India is its member but China is not its member
Which of the above are correct?
CorrectAnswer A
IncorrectAnswer A
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Question 26 of 30
1 points
A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 27 of 30
1 points
A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 28 of 30
1 points
A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 29 of 30
1 points
8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask hold originally?
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 30 of 30
1 points
The paternity leave is not as utilised as maternity leave. Even where men have access to paid paternity leave, they might still cut their leaves short to avoid being perceived as less dedicated employees. One recent survey of highly educated professional fathers, found a substantial portion took less than the full amount of paid leave available. They cited work pressures as a factor in the length of leave they took. Other studies have found that fathers who reduce their work hours or leave work for family reasons may incur a “flexibility stigma.”
Q5. According to the author, which of the following are responsible for poor usage of paid paternity leave?
- Male breadwinner norms
- Work culture
- Professionalism
Select correct answer the code given below:
CorrectCorrect Answer : C Answer Justification : The passage clarifies us that payment industry is very much required for our country and it has been optimistic about it and not pessimistic like statement A. The passage indeed mentions the issues associated with digital payments but does not recommend against excess use of it. The passage implies by bringing security arrangements these advancements can become beneficial and so the focus of author is need for companionship between innovation and security. B is essentially wrong because the need for trust is not between government and payment industry but of both with people.
C is the answer.
IncorrectCorrect Answer : C Answer Justification : The passage clarifies us that payment industry is very much required for our country and it has been optimistic about it and not pessimistic like statement A. The passage indeed mentions the issues associated with digital payments but does not recommend against excess use of it. The passage implies by bringing security arrangements these advancements can become beneficial and so the focus of author is need for companionship between innovation and security. B is essentially wrong because the need for trust is not between government and payment industry but of both with people.
C is the answer.
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