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INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2022
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2022
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Question 1 of 30
1 points
Which of the following commodities/products is/are considered as Minor Forest Produce?
- Wild Honey
- Teak
- Bamboo
- Myrobalan
Select the correct answer using the code given below
CorrectSolution: A
Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is more often than not determined by the traders instead of self-sustained process of demand and supply. Implementing a scheme to ensure that such forest dwellers are not deprived of their due. Under the scheme maximum selling price for MFP is being implemented in schedule V States initially. Web based portal has also been developed which indicate current price of MFPs on real time basis across different mandis of the States.
Included Products
12 MFP products have been included in the programme namely
- Tendu Leave
- Bamboo
- Mahuwa Seeds
- Sal Leaf
- Sal Seed
- Lac
- Chironjee
- Wild Honey
- Myrobalan
- Tamarind
- Gums (Gum Karaya) and
- Karanji.
https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/scheduled-tribes-welfare/van-bandhu-kalyan-yojana
IncorrectSolution: A
Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is more often than not determined by the traders instead of self-sustained process of demand and supply. Implementing a scheme to ensure that such forest dwellers are not deprived of their due. Under the scheme maximum selling price for MFP is being implemented in schedule V States initially. Web based portal has also been developed which indicate current price of MFPs on real time basis across different mandis of the States.
Included Products
12 MFP products have been included in the programme namely
- Tendu Leave
- Bamboo
- Mahuwa Seeds
- Sal Leaf
- Sal Seed
- Lac
- Chironjee
- Wild Honey
- Myrobalan
- Tamarind
- Gums (Gum Karaya) and
- Karanji.
https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/scheduled-tribes-welfare/van-bandhu-kalyan-yojana
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Question 2 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Overseas Citizen of India
- The foreigner has to be ordinarily resident of India to be eligible to apply for OCI registration in India.
- They have been provided with multiple entry, multi-purpose lifelong visa to visit India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
Overseas Citizen Of India
A foreign national, – (i) who was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after 26th January, 1950; or (ii) who was eligible to become a citizen of India on 26th January, 1950; or (iii) who belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15th August, 1947; or (iv) who is a child or a grandchild or a great grandchild of such a citizen; or (v) who is a minor child of such persons mentioned above; or (vi) who is a minor child and whose both parents are citizens of India or one of the parents is a citizen of India – is eligible for registration as OCI cardholder.
Besides, spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder and whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the application is also eligible for registration as OCI cardholder. However, no person, who or either of whose parents or grandparents or great grandparents is or had been a citizen of Pakistan, Bangladesh or such other country as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify, shall be eligible for registration as an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder.
Foreign nationals cannot apply for OCI in India while on Tourist Visa, Missionary Visa and Mountaineering Visa. Moreover, the foreigner has to be ordinarily resident of India to be eligible to apply for OCI registration in India.
Note: ‘ordinarily resident’ will mean a person staying in a particular country or in India for a continuous period of 6 months.(i) Multiple entry, multi-purpose lifelong visa to visit India;
(ii) Exemption from reporting to Police authorities for any length of stay in India; and
(iii)Parity with NRIs in financial, economic and educational fields except in the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties.
IncorrectSolution: C
Overseas Citizen Of India
A foreign national, – (i) who was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after 26th January, 1950; or (ii) who was eligible to become a citizen of India on 26th January, 1950; or (iii) who belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15th August, 1947; or (iv) who is a child or a grandchild or a great grandchild of such a citizen; or (v) who is a minor child of such persons mentioned above; or (vi) who is a minor child and whose both parents are citizens of India or one of the parents is a citizen of India – is eligible for registration as OCI cardholder.
Besides, spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder and whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the application is also eligible for registration as OCI cardholder. However, no person, who or either of whose parents or grandparents or great grandparents is or had been a citizen of Pakistan, Bangladesh or such other country as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify, shall be eligible for registration as an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder.
Foreign nationals cannot apply for OCI in India while on Tourist Visa, Missionary Visa and Mountaineering Visa. Moreover, the foreigner has to be ordinarily resident of India to be eligible to apply for OCI registration in India.
Note: ‘ordinarily resident’ will mean a person staying in a particular country or in India for a continuous period of 6 months.(i) Multiple entry, multi-purpose lifelong visa to visit India;
(ii) Exemption from reporting to Police authorities for any length of stay in India; and
(iii)Parity with NRIs in financial, economic and educational fields except in the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties.
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Question 3 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Objectives Resolution
- This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly in 1950.
- Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Objectives Resolution
On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. It read:
1. “This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution
2. Wherein the territories that now comprise British India, the territories that now form the Indian States and such other parts of India as are outside India and the States as well as other territories as are willing to be constituted into the independent sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all
3. wherein the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall possess and retain the status of autonomous units together with residuary powers and exercise all powers and functions of Government and administration save and except such powers and functions as are vested in or assigned to the Union or as are inherent or implied in the Union or resulting therefrom
This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947.
It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.
IncorrectSolution: B
Objectives Resolution
On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. It read:
1. “This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution
2. Wherein the territories that now comprise British India, the territories that now form the Indian States and such other parts of India as are outside India and the States as well as other territories as are willing to be constituted into the independent sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all
3. wherein the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall possess and retain the status of autonomous units together with residuary powers and exercise all powers and functions of Government and administration save and except such powers and functions as are vested in or assigned to the Union or as are inherent or implied in the Union or resulting therefrom
This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947.
It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.
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Question 4 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Major Committees of Constituent Assembly
- Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee was headed by J.B. Kripalani.
- Minorities Sub-Committee was headed by H.C. Mukherjee.
- Provincial Constitution Committee was headed by Sardar Patel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution-making. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor committees. The names of these committees and their Chairman are given below:
Major Committees
- Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
- Union Constitution Committee -Jawaharlal Nehru.
- Provincial Constitution Committee -Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel. This committee had the following five sub committees:
(a) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani
(b) Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee
(c) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee -Gopinath Bardoloi
(d) Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee – A.V. Thakkar
(e) North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee
- Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
- States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
- Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
IncorrectSolution: D
The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution-making. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor committees. The names of these committees and their Chairman are given below:
Major Committees
- Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
- Union Constitution Committee -Jawaharlal Nehru.
- Provincial Constitution Committee -Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel. This committee had the following five sub committees:
(a) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani
(b) Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee
(c) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee -Gopinath Bardoloi
(d) Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee – A.V. Thakkar
(e) North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee
- Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
- States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
- Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
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Question 5 of 30
1 points
Which of the following passes connects India and China?
- Banihal Pass
- Lipu Lekh
- Shipki La
Select the correct answer using the code given below
CorrectSolution: B
Banihal pass is a popular pass in Jammu and Kashmir. It is situated in the Pir- Panjal Range. It connects Banihal with Qazigund.
Lipu Lekh is located in Uttarakhand. It connects Uttarakhand with Tibet. This pass is an important border post for trade with China.
Shipki La is located through Sutlej Gorge. It connects Himachal Pradesh with Tibet. It is India’s third border post for trade with China after Lipu Lekh and Nathula Pass.
IncorrectSolution: B
Banihal pass is a popular pass in Jammu and Kashmir. It is situated in the Pir- Panjal Range. It connects Banihal with Qazigund.
Lipu Lekh is located in Uttarakhand. It connects Uttarakhand with Tibet. This pass is an important border post for trade with China.
Shipki La is located through Sutlej Gorge. It connects Himachal Pradesh with Tibet. It is India’s third border post for trade with China after Lipu Lekh and Nathula Pass.
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Question 6 of 30
1 points
Under Indian constitution, which of the following are provisions describes India as Secular State?
- The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws.
- Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment.
- No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
CorrectSolution: D
Secular State
The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
(a) The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
(b) The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
(c) The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
(d) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
(e) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
(f) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
(g) Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
(h) No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).
(i) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).
(j) Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or culture (Article 29).
(k) All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article 30).
(l) The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).
IncorrectSolution: D
Secular State
The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
(a) The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
(b) The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
(c) The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
(d) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
(e) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
(f) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
(g) Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
(h) No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).
(i) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).
(j) Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or culture (Article 29).
(k) All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article 30).
(l) The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).
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Question 7 of 30
1 points
Which of the following are the manifestations of the democratic character of the Indian polity?
- Universal adult franchise
- Periodic elections
- Rule of law
- Independence of judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: D
The Indian Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy under which the executive is responsible to the legislature for all its policies and actions. Universal adult franchise, periodic elections, rule of law, independence of judiciary, and absence of discrimination on certain grounds are the manifestations of the democratic character of the Indian polity.
The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
IncorrectSolution: D
The Indian Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy under which the executive is responsible to the legislature for all its policies and actions. Universal adult franchise, periodic elections, rule of law, independence of judiciary, and absence of discrimination on certain grounds are the manifestations of the democratic character of the Indian polity.
The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
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Question 8 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Parliament’s power to reorganize the states
- Parliament has to refer the bill concerning reorganizing state, to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
- The Parliament is not bound by the views of the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Parliament’s power to reorganise the states
Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
(b) increase the area of any state;
(c) diminish the area of any state;
(d) alter the boundaries of any state; and
(e) alter the name of any state.
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
Further, the power of Parliament to form new states includes the power to form a new state or union territory by uniting a part of any state or union territory to any other state or union territory.
The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time. Further, it is not necessary to make a fresh reference to the state legislature every time an amendment to the bill is moved and accepted in Parliament. In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to the concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit.
IncorrectSolution: B
Parliament’s power to reorganise the states
Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
(b) increase the area of any state;
(c) diminish the area of any state;
(d) alter the boundaries of any state; and
(e) alter the name of any state.
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
Further, the power of Parliament to form new states includes the power to form a new state or union territory by uniting a part of any state or union territory to any other state or union territory.
The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time. Further, it is not necessary to make a fresh reference to the state legislature every time an amendment to the bill is moved and accepted in Parliament. In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to the concerned legislature to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit.
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Question 9 of 30
1 points
Arrange the following states/UT chronologically based on its formation from earliest to latest.
- Gujarat
- Dadra and Nagar Haveli
- Puducherry
- Nagaland
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectSolution: D
New States and Union Territories Created After 1956
Maharashtra and Gujarat
In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate states–Maharashtra and Gujarat.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli
The Portuguese ruled this territory until its liberation in 1954. Subsequently, the administration was carried on till 1961 by an administrator chosen by the people themselves. It was converted into a union territory of India by the 10th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1961.
Puducherry
The French handed over this territory to India in 1954. Subsequently, it was administered as an ‘acquired territory’, till 1962 when it was made a union territory by the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Nagaland
In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of governor of Assam in 1961.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
IncorrectSolution: D
New States and Union Territories Created After 1956
Maharashtra and Gujarat
In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate states–Maharashtra and Gujarat.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli
The Portuguese ruled this territory until its liberation in 1954. Subsequently, the administration was carried on till 1961 by an administrator chosen by the people themselves. It was converted into a union territory of India by the 10th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1961.
Puducherry
The French handed over this territory to India in 1954. Subsequently, it was administered as an ‘acquired territory’, till 1962 when it was made a union territory by the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Nagaland
In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of governor of Assam in 1961.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
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Question 10 of 30
1 points
Consider the following statements regarding Double Membership in Houses of Parliament
- If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he should exercise his option for one, otherwise, both seats become vacant.
- If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
- If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one, otherwise, both seats become vacant.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
CorrectSolution: B
Double Membership
A person cannot be a member of both Houses of Parliament at the same time. Thus, the Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the following:
(a) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. In default of such intimation, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
(b) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
(c) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise, both seats become vacant.
Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
IncorrectSolution: B
Double Membership
A person cannot be a member of both Houses of Parliament at the same time. Thus, the Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the following:
(a) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. In default of such intimation, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
(b) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant.
(c) If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise, both seats become vacant.
Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
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Question 11 of 30
1 points
When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state
- the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.
- the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
CorrectSolution: c)
Learning: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.
- The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.
- This is the reason why a proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in a state. Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly.
- The Parliament then passes the state legislative bills and the state budget.
Q Source: Chapter 16: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: c)
Learning: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.
- The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.
- This is the reason why a proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in a state. Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly.
- The Parliament then passes the state legislative bills and the state budget.
Q Source: Chapter 16: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 12 of 30
1 points
The laws of the Parliament are applicable
- in all the states of India
- to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: c)
Justification: The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The territory of India includes the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India.
- A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object.
- The Parliament alone can make ‘extra-territorial legislation’. Thus, the laws of the Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.
Q Source: Chapter 14: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: c)
Justification: The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The territory of India includes the states, the union territories, and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India.
- A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object.
- The Parliament alone can make ‘extra-territorial legislation’. Thus, the laws of the Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.
Q Source: Chapter 14: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 13 of 30
1 points
Who among the following can delegate a function of the Centre to a state without the consent of the concerned state?
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The Constitution provides for inter-government delegation of executive functions in order to mitigate rigidity and avoid a situation of deadlock.
Accordingly, the President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the Centre.
- Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the Central government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state. This mutual delegation of administrative functions may be conditional or unconditional.
The Constitution also makes a provision for the entrustment of the executive functions of the Centre to a state without the consent of that state. But, in this case, the delegation is by the Parliament and not by the president.
- Thus, a law made by the Parliament on a subject of the Union List can confer powers and impose duties on a state, or authorise the conferring of powers and imposition of duties by the Centre upon a state (irrespective of the consent of the state concerned).
- Notably, the same thing cannot be done by the state legislature.
Q Source: Chapter 14: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: The Constitution provides for inter-government delegation of executive functions in order to mitigate rigidity and avoid a situation of deadlock.
Accordingly, the President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the Centre.
- Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the Central government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state. This mutual delegation of administrative functions may be conditional or unconditional.
The Constitution also makes a provision for the entrustment of the executive functions of the Centre to a state without the consent of that state. But, in this case, the delegation is by the Parliament and not by the president.
- Thus, a law made by the Parliament on a subject of the Union List can confer powers and impose duties on a state, or authorise the conferring of powers and imposition of duties by the Centre upon a state (irrespective of the consent of the state concerned).
- Notably, the same thing cannot be done by the state legislature.
Q Source: Chapter 14: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 14 of 30
1 points
Article 355 of the constitution places which of the following duties on the Central Government?
- Ensuring that every state government follows constitutional provisions
- Ensuring that every state is protected against economic downturns
Which of the above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: a)
Justification: It imposes two duties on the Centre: (a) to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance; and (b) to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
It is this duty in the performance of which the Centre takes over the government of a state under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional machinery in state. This is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
Q Source: Chapter 15: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: a)
Justification: It imposes two duties on the Centre: (a) to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance; and (b) to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
It is this duty in the performance of which the Centre takes over the government of a state under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional machinery in state. This is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
Q Source: Chapter 15: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 15 of 30
1 points
Which of the following principles is considered as the bedrock principle of parliamentary government?
CorrectSolution: d)
Justification: The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence. This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together.
Moreover, usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus.
Q Source: Chapter 12: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
IncorrectSolution: d)
Justification: The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence. This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together.
Moreover, usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus.
Q Source: Chapter 12: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
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Question 16 of 30
1 points
According to World Air Quality Report,2021, consider the following statements:
- It was released by the United Nations Environmental Programme(UNEP).
- India was the most polluted country in the world in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution 😀
Solution
- Released by IQAir, a Swiss group that measures air quality levels based on the concentration of Particulate Matter (PM) 2.5.
- Bangladesh was the most polluted country in the world in 2021.
IncorrectSolution 😀
Solution
- Released by IQAir, a Swiss group that measures air quality levels based on the concentration of Particulate Matter (PM) 2.5.
- Bangladesh was the most polluted country in the world in 2021.
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Question 17 of 30
1 points
SAGE Project , sometimes seen in news is related to which of following vulnerable sections:
CorrectSolution: A
Solution:
- The SAGE project will be launched to select, support and create “one-stop access” of elderly care products and services provided by credible start-ups.
- Project was formulated following the recommendations of an empowered expert committee report on start-ups for elderly.
- Once the project is launched, start-ups can apply to be a part of it through a dedicated portal. This dedicated portal will also be launched along with the scheme.
IncorrectSolution: A
Solution:
- The SAGE project will be launched to select, support and create “one-stop access” of elderly care products and services provided by credible start-ups.
- Project was formulated following the recommendations of an empowered expert committee report on start-ups for elderly.
- Once the project is launched, start-ups can apply to be a part of it through a dedicated portal. This dedicated portal will also be launched along with the scheme.
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Question 18 of 30
1 points
In the context of municipal bonds sometimes seen in news , consider the following criteria issued by SEBI for any municipality to issue municipal bonds:
- The municipality should not have negative net worth in any of three immediately preceding financial years.
- The municipality should not have defaulted in repayment of debt securities or loans obtained from banks or financial institutions during the last 365 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectSolution: C
SEBI Guidelines on municipal bonds:
As per the SEBI Regulations, 2015, a municipality or a Corporate Municipal Entity (CME) to issue Municipal Bonds should meet certain conditions:
- The ULB should not have negative net worth in any of three immediately preceding financial years.
- Non-default: The municipality should not have defaulted in repayment of debt securities or loans obtained from banks or financial institutions during the last 365 days.
- Municipalities need to contribute at least 20% of the project cost.
IncorrectSolution: C
SEBI Guidelines on municipal bonds:
As per the SEBI Regulations, 2015, a municipality or a Corporate Municipal Entity (CME) to issue Municipal Bonds should meet certain conditions:
- The ULB should not have negative net worth in any of three immediately preceding financial years.
- Non-default: The municipality should not have defaulted in repayment of debt securities or loans obtained from banks or financial institutions during the last 365 days.
- Municipalities need to contribute at least 20% of the project cost.
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Question 19 of 30
1 points
Compulsory licensing sometimes seen in news is related to
CorrectSolution: D
IncorrectSolution: D
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Question 20 of 30
1 points
“Bretton Woods Conference” is related to :
- World Bank
- European Union
- World Trade Organisation.
- International Monetary Fund
Which of the above organisations are correct :
CorrectSolution: B
Solution:
The conference was held from July 1 to 22, 1944. Agreements were signed that, after legislative ratification by member governments, established the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD, later part of the World Bank group) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF). This led to what was called the Bretton Woods system for international commercial and financial relations
IncorrectSolution: B
Solution:
The conference was held from July 1 to 22, 1944. Agreements were signed that, after legislative ratification by member governments, established the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD, later part of the World Bank group) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF). This led to what was called the Bretton Woods system for international commercial and financial relations
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Question 21 of 30
1 points
Consider the following about PM Kisan Maandhan Yojana
1)Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana is a government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Small and Marginal Farmers
2)Scheme is under Ministry of finance
Which of the above are Correct?
CorrectAnswer A
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana is a government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Small and Marginal Farmers
Eligibility
For Small and Marginal Farmers
Entry Age between 18 to 40 years
Cultivable land up to 2 hectares as per land records of the concerned State/UT
Features
Assured pension of Rs. 3000/- month
Voluntary and Contributory Pension Scheme
Matching Contribution by the Government of India
Ministry of Agriculture
IncorrectAnswer A
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana is a government scheme meant for old age protection and social security of Small and Marginal Farmers
Eligibility
For Small and Marginal Farmers
Entry Age between 18 to 40 years
Cultivable land up to 2 hectares as per land records of the concerned State/UT
Features
Assured pension of Rs. 3000/- month
Voluntary and Contributory Pension Scheme
Matching Contribution by the Government of India
Ministry of Agriculture
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Question 22 of 30
1 points
Consider the following about PM Matsya Sampada Yojana
1)The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana. (PMMSY) is designed to address critical gaps in fish production and productivity, quality, technology, post-harvest infrastructure and management, modernisation and strengthening of value chain, traceability, establishing a robust fisheries management framework and fishers‟ welfare.
2)Scheme is completely Centrally sponsored Scheme
Which of the above are correct?
CorrectAnswer A
The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely (a) Central Sector Scheme (CS) and (b) Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
It aims to:Adopt ‘Cluster or Area-based Approaches’ and create fisheries clusters through backward and forward linkages.
It is under Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying
IncorrectAnswer A
The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely (a) Central Sector Scheme (CS) and (b) Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
It aims to:Adopt ‘Cluster or Area-based Approaches’ and create fisheries clusters through backward and forward linkages.
It is under Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying
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Question 23 of 30
1 points
With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, Consider the following
statements:
- It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and TRIPS Agreement.
- Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAnswer C
Highlights of the policy:
- The new policy calls for providing financial support to the less empowered groups of IP owners or creators such as farmers, weavers and artisans through financial institutions like rural banks or co-operative banks offering IP-friendly loans.
- The work done by various ministries and departments will be monitored by the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), which will be the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India.
- The policy, with a tagline of Creative India: Innovative India, also calls for updating various intellectual property laws, including the Indian Cinematography Act, to remove anomalies and inconsistencies in consultation with stakeholders.
- For supporting financial aspects of IPR commercialization, it asks for financial support to develop IP assets through links with financial institutions, including banks, VC funds, angel funds and crowd-funding mechanisms.
- To achieve the objective of strengthening enforcement and adjudicatory mechanisms to combat IPR infringements, it called for taking actions against attempts to treat generic drugs as spurious or counterfeit and undertake stringent measures to curb manufacture and sale of misbranded, adulterated and spurious drugs.
- The policy will be reviewed after every five years to keep pace with further developments in the sector.
IncorrectAnswer C
Highlights of the policy:
- The new policy calls for providing financial support to the less empowered groups of IP owners or creators such as farmers, weavers and artisans through financial institutions like rural banks or co-operative banks offering IP-friendly loans.
- The work done by various ministries and departments will be monitored by the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), which will be the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India.
- The policy, with a tagline of Creative India: Innovative India, also calls for updating various intellectual property laws, including the Indian Cinematography Act, to remove anomalies and inconsistencies in consultation with stakeholders.
- For supporting financial aspects of IPR commercialization, it asks for financial support to develop IP assets through links with financial institutions, including banks, VC funds, angel funds and crowd-funding mechanisms.
- To achieve the objective of strengthening enforcement and adjudicatory mechanisms to combat IPR infringements, it called for taking actions against attempts to treat generic drugs as spurious or counterfeit and undertake stringent measures to curb manufacture and sale of misbranded, adulterated and spurious drugs.
- The policy will be reviewed after every five years to keep pace with further developments in the sector.
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Question 24 of 30
1 points
Which of the following is not part of Capital Account
CorrectAnswer D
Components of BoP:
For preparing BoP accounts, economic transactions between a country and rest of the world are grouped under – Current account, Capital account and Errors and Omissions. It also shows changes in Foreign Exchange Reserves.
Current Account:It shows export and import of visibles (merchandise or goods) and invisibles (non merchandise).Invisibles include services, transfers -gifts grants,remittances and income.
Capital Account:It shows a capital expenditure and income for a country.It gives a summary of the net flow of both private and public investment into an economy.
External Commercial Borrowing (ECB), FDI, FPI,NRI deposits etc form a part of capital account.
IncorrectAnswer D
Components of BoP:
For preparing BoP accounts, economic transactions between a country and rest of the world are grouped under – Current account, Capital account and Errors and Omissions. It also shows changes in Foreign Exchange Reserves.
Current Account:It shows export and import of visibles (merchandise or goods) and invisibles (non merchandise).Invisibles include services, transfers -gifts grants,remittances and income.
Capital Account:It shows a capital expenditure and income for a country.It gives a summary of the net flow of both private and public investment into an economy.
External Commercial Borrowing (ECB), FDI, FPI,NRI deposits etc form a part of capital account.
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Question 25 of 30
1 points
Consider the following
1)India never experienced recession before lockdown
2) Recession is when growth rate is less than previous year
Which of the above are correct?
CorrectANswer D
Recession is defined as a fall in the overall economic activity for two consecutive quarters (six months) accompanied by a decline in income, sales and employment. In independent India’s history, four such years of negative GDP growth were registered. They saw contraction of -1.2% (FY58), -3.66% (FY66), -0.32% (FY73) and -5.2% (FY80)
IncorrectANswer D
Recession is defined as a fall in the overall economic activity for two consecutive quarters (six months) accompanied by a decline in income, sales and employment. In independent India’s history, four such years of negative GDP growth were registered. They saw contraction of -1.2% (FY58), -3.66% (FY66), -0.32% (FY73) and -5.2% (FY80)
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Question 26 of 30
1 points
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 27 of 30
1 points
- If 16 x8 n+2 = 2m, then m is equal to
CorrectAns: d
Given that, 16×8 n+2 = 2m
(2)4x23(n+2) = 2m
2(4+3n+6) = 2m
2(3n+10)=2m
On comparing powers, we get
3n+10 = m
m = 3n+10
IncorrectAns: d
Given that, 16×8 n+2 = 2m
(2)4x23(n+2) = 2m
2(4+3n+6) = 2m
2(3n+10)=2m
On comparing powers, we get
3n+10 = m
m = 3n+10
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Question 28 of 30
1 points
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 29 of 30
1 points
What is the value of (√.0032)/ (√.32 ) ?
CorrectAnswer : c
Let ages of man and his son are 8x yr and x yr, respectively.
According to the question,
[(8x+x)/(2 )] = 27
x = [(27´2)/(9)]=6
Hence, age of son after 6 yr = 6+6 = 12yr
IncorrectAnswer : c
Let ages of man and his son are 8x yr and x yr, respectively.
According to the question,
[(8x+x)/(2 )] = 27
x = [(27´2)/(9)]=6
Hence, age of son after 6 yr = 6+6 = 12yr
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Question 30 of 30
1 points
The Global Financial Stability Report finds that the
share of portfolio investments from advanced economies in the total debt and equity investments in emerging economies has doubled in the past decade to 12%. The phenomenon has implications for Indian policy-makers as foreign portfolio investments in the debt and equity markets have been on the rise. The phenomenon is also flagged as a threat that could compromise global financial stability in a chain reaction, in the event of United States federal Reserve’s imminent reversal of its ‘Quantitative Easing policy.
Which among the following is the most rational and critical inference that can be made from the
above passage?
Correct( d ) In the passage , according to the Global Financial Stability Report , the share of portfolio investment from advanced economy in total debt and equity investment in emerging economies has doubled in the past decade to 12% According to the USA’s Federal Reserve’s imminent reversal of its
Quantitative Easing policy says that this could pose as the threat which could affect global financial stability in a chain reaction . So , the most rational and critical inference is the option ( d )
Incorrect( d ) In the passage , according to the Global Financial Stability Report , the share of portfolio investment from advanced economy in total debt and equity investment in emerging economies has doubled in the past decade to 12% According to the USA’s Federal Reserve’s imminent reversal of its
Quantitative Easing policy says that this could pose as the threat which could affect global financial stability in a chain reaction . So , the most rational and critical inference is the option ( d )
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