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Puucho CURRENT Affairs RTM – 2020
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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1 points
With reference to Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), consider the following:
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- The Treaty represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
- The treaty defines nuclear-weapon states as those that have built and tested a nuclear explosive device before 1 January 1971.
- To further the goal of non-proliferation and as a confidence-building measure between States parties, the Treaty establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- S3: To further the goal of non-proliferation and as a confidence-building measure between States parties, the Treaty establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Safeguards are used to verify compliance with the Treaty through inspections conducted by the IAEA.
- S2: The treaty defines nuclear-weapon states as those that have built and tested a nuclear explosive device before 1 January 1967; these are the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China.
- S1: The Treaty represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/the-weapons-of-mass-destruction-amendment-bill-2022/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- S3: To further the goal of non-proliferation and as a confidence-building measure between States parties, the Treaty establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Safeguards are used to verify compliance with the Treaty through inspections conducted by the IAEA.
- S2: The treaty defines nuclear-weapon states as those that have built and tested a nuclear explosive device before 1 January 1967; these are the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China.
- S1: The Treaty represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/the-weapons-of-mass-destruction-amendment-bill-2022/
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Question 2 of 10
1 points
With reference to Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty, consider the following statements:
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- The Treaty aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons, promotes disarmament and peaceful uses of energy.
- The treaty entered into force in 1970.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: CTBT is the treaty in which the countries are to ban the nuclear explosions and tests of nuclear weapons, whereas, NPT is the treaty which bans development of nuclear weapons altogether but allows the development of nuclear energy for experiments or peaceful uses.
- S2: The treaty was opened for signature in September 1996, and has been signed by 185 nations and ratified by 172. The treaty cannot formally enter into force until it is ratified by 44 specific nations, eight of which have yet to do so: China, India, Pakistan, North Korea, Israel, Iran, Egypt, and the United States.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/the-weapons-of-mass-destruction-amendment-bill-2022/
IncorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- S1: CTBT is the treaty in which the countries are to ban the nuclear explosions and tests of nuclear weapons, whereas, NPT is the treaty which bans development of nuclear weapons altogether but allows the development of nuclear energy for experiments or peaceful uses.
- S2: The treaty was opened for signature in September 1996, and has been signed by 185 nations and ratified by 172. The treaty cannot formally enter into force until it is ratified by 44 specific nations, eight of which have yet to do so: China, India, Pakistan, North Korea, Israel, Iran, Egypt, and the United States.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/the-weapons-of-mass-destruction-amendment-bill-2022/
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Question 3 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements with reference to India’s Mullaperiyar Dam:
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- Mullaperiyar Dam is located in the upper reaches of the river Periyar, which flows into Tamil Nadu after originating in Kerala.
- The reservoir is within the Periyar Tiger Reserve.
- It is operated and maintained by Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The dam is located in the upper reaches of the river Periyar, which flows into Kerala after originating in Tamil Nadu.
- S2: The reservoir is within the Periyar Tiger Reserve. The water diverted from the reservoir is first used for power generation in lower Periyar (by Tamil Nadu) before flowing into the Suruliyar, a tributary of Vaigai river, and then for irrigating nearly 2.08 lakh hectares in Theni and four other districts farther away.
- S3: The dam is Located in Kerala, controlled by Tamil Nadu.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/dam-safety-act/
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: The dam is located in the upper reaches of the river Periyar, which flows into Kerala after originating in Tamil Nadu.
- S2: The reservoir is within the Periyar Tiger Reserve. The water diverted from the reservoir is first used for power generation in lower Periyar (by Tamil Nadu) before flowing into the Suruliyar, a tributary of Vaigai river, and then for irrigating nearly 2.08 lakh hectares in Theni and four other districts farther away.
- S3: The dam is Located in Kerala, controlled by Tamil Nadu.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/dam-safety-act/
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Question 4 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements about the ‘Stand Up India Scheme’:
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- It seeks to promote entrepreneurship at the grass-root level of economic empowerment and job creation.
- Loans under the scheme are available for only Greenfield projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Launched in 2016.
- It seeks to promote entrepreneurship at the grass-root level of economic empowerment and job creation.
- Aim: To leverage the institutional credit structure to reach out to the underserved sector of people such as SCs, STs and Women Entrepreneurs.
- The offices of SIDBI and NABARD shall be designated Stand-Up Connect Centres (SUCC).
- Loans under the scheme are available for only Greenfield projects.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/stand-up-india-scheme-2/
IncorrectAns: (c)
Explanation:
- Launched in 2016.
- It seeks to promote entrepreneurship at the grass-root level of economic empowerment and job creation.
- Aim: To leverage the institutional credit structure to reach out to the underserved sector of people such as SCs, STs and Women Entrepreneurs.
- The offices of SIDBI and NABARD shall be designated Stand-Up Connect Centres (SUCC).
- Loans under the scheme are available for only Greenfield projects.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/stand-up-india-scheme-2/
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Question 5 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements:
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- Electoral bonds are an instrument through which anyone can donate money to political parties.
- The bonds are issued in multiples of Rs. 20,000 without any maximum limit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- Electoral Bond is a financial instrument for making donations to political parties.
- The bonds are issued in multiples of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 crore without any maximum limit.
- State Bank of India is authorised to issue and encash these bonds, which are valid for fifteen days from the date of issuance.
- These bonds are redeemable in the designated account of a registered political party.
- The bonds are available for purchase by any person (who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India) for a period of ten days each in the months of January, April, July and October as may be specified by the Central Government.
- A person being an individual can buy bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.
- Donor’s name is not mentioned on the bond.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/electoral-bonds-3/
IncorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- Electoral Bond is a financial instrument for making donations to political parties.
- The bonds are issued in multiples of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 10,000, Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 crore without any maximum limit.
- State Bank of India is authorised to issue and encash these bonds, which are valid for fifteen days from the date of issuance.
- These bonds are redeemable in the designated account of a registered political party.
- The bonds are available for purchase by any person (who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India) for a period of ten days each in the months of January, April, July and October as may be specified by the Central Government.
- A person being an individual can buy bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals.
- Donor’s name is not mentioned on the bond.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/electoral-bonds-3/
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Question 6 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements about United Nations Human Rights Council:
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- It is a United Nations body whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world.
- Each elected member of HRC serves for a term of three years.
- It passes binding resolutions on human rights issues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- UNHRC was reconstituted from its predecessor organisation, the UN Commission on Human Rights to help overcome the “credibility deficit” of the previous organisation.
- Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- Each elected member serves for a term of three years.
- Countries are disallowed from occupying a seat for more than two consecutive terms.
- The UNHRC passes non-binding resolutions on human rights issues through a periodic review of all 193 UN member states called the Universal Periodic Review (UPR).
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- UNHRC was reconstituted from its predecessor organisation, the UN Commission on Human Rights to help overcome the “credibility deficit” of the previous organisation.
- Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- Each elected member serves for a term of three years.
- Countries are disallowed from occupying a seat for more than two consecutive terms.
- The UNHRC passes non-binding resolutions on human rights issues through a periodic review of all 193 UN member states called the Universal Periodic Review (UPR).
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Question 7 of 10
1 points
Ashwini Vaishnaw Committee was set up recently by GOI, is mandated to provide key inputs on:
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Question 8 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements:
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- The International Energy Agency is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- The IEA is best known for the publication of its annual World Energy Outlook.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Established in 1974 as per the framework of the OECD, IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation.
- Its mission is guided by four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
- Headquarters (Secretariat): Paris, France.
- S2: Reports:
- Global Energy & CO2 Status Report.
- World Energy Outlook.
- World Energy Statistics.
- World Energy Balances.
- Energy Technology Perspectives.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-08-april-2022/
IncorrectAns: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: Established in 1974 as per the framework of the OECD, IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation.
- Its mission is guided by four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness and engagement worldwide.
- Headquarters (Secretariat): Paris, France.
- S2: Reports:
- Global Energy & CO2 Status Report.
- World Energy Outlook.
- World Energy Statistics.
- World Energy Balances.
- Energy Technology Perspectives.
Refer: facts for prelims: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2022/04/08/mission-2022-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-08-april-2022/
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Question 9 of 10
1 points
“Jaan Hai To Jahaan Hai” Campaign was in news recently, is launched by:
CorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- “Jaan Hai To Jahaan Hai” Awareness Campaign:
- Launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
- It is a nationwide awareness campaign to create awareness on Corona vaccination in rural and remote areas of the country and also to “Crush and Curb” the rumours and apprehensions regarding the on-going vaccination drive.
IncorrectAns: (d)
Explanation:
- “Jaan Hai To Jahaan Hai” Awareness Campaign:
- Launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
- It is a nationwide awareness campaign to create awareness on Corona vaccination in rural and remote areas of the country and also to “Crush and Curb” the rumours and apprehensions regarding the on-going vaccination drive.
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Question 10 of 10
1 points
Consider the following statements:
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- Natural rubber is a native of warm humid Amazon forests.
- Natural rubber is naturally suited for the colder conditions in the Northeast.
- Assam is the largest producers of rubber in India.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?
CorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- Natural rubber is a native of warm humid Amazon forests and is not naturally suited for the colder conditions in the Northeast, which is one of the largest producers of rubber in India.
- Kerala accounts for more than 90 percent of the total rubber production in the country.
- World’s 1st GM rubber sapling:
- World’s first genetically modified (GM) rubber sapling was recently planted at the Rubber Board’s Sarutari research farm on the outskirts of Guwahati in Assam.
- It was developed at the Kerala-based Rubber Research Institute of India (RRII).
- With additional copies of the gene MnSOD (manganese-containing superoxide dismutase) inserted in it, the GM rubber is expected to tide over the severe cold conditions during winter, which is a major factor affecting the growth of rubber saplings.
- MnSOD gene used in the GM rubber was taken from the rubber plant itself.
IncorrectAns: (a)
Explanation:
- Natural rubber is a native of warm humid Amazon forests and is not naturally suited for the colder conditions in the Northeast, which is one of the largest producers of rubber in India.
- Kerala accounts for more than 90 percent of the total rubber production in the country.
- World’s 1st GM rubber sapling:
- World’s first genetically modified (GM) rubber sapling was recently planted at the Rubber Board’s Sarutari research farm on the outskirts of Guwahati in Assam.
- It was developed at the Kerala-based Rubber Research Institute of India (RRII).
- With additional copies of the gene MnSOD (manganese-containing superoxide dismutase) inserted in it, the GM rubber is expected to tide over the severe cold conditions during winter, which is a major factor affecting the growth of rubber saplings.
- MnSOD gene used in the GM rubber was taken from the rubber plant itself.
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